Biochemistry
1 questionsTyrosine kinase receptor is associated with proto-oncogene -
NEET-PG 2015 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 271: Tyrosine kinase receptor is associated with proto-oncogene -
- A. RAS (RAt Sarcoma)
- B. RET (REarranged during Transfection) (Correct Answer)
- C. RB (Retinoblastoma gene)
- D. MYC (Myelocytomatosis oncogene)
Explanation: ***RET*** - RET is a **tyrosine kinase receptor** that plays a crucial role in cell signaling and development [1][2]. - It is associated with several **neoplasms**, including medullary thyroid carcinoma and multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 [1]. *RB* - RB (Retinoblastoma protein) is a **tumor suppressor gene**, not a proto-oncogene or receptor. - Its role is largely in regulating the **cell cycle**, particularly in preventing excessive cell growth. *RAS* - RAS is a family of **GTPase proteins** involved in transmitting signals within cells, but it is not a receptor itself [1]. - It is classified as an **oncogene**, but does not function as a tyrosine kinase receptor [2]. *MYC* - MYC is a **transcription factor** involved in cell cycle progression and growth, not a tyrosine kinase receptor [2]. - It is considered an **oncogene** that promotes cellular proliferation, but it doesn't have tyrosine kinase activity [3][4]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Endocrine System, pp. 1097-1098. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Neoplasia, pp. 291-292. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. With Illustrations By, pp. 28-29. [4] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Neoplasia, pp. 293-294.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsWhat is the mode of inheritance for the most common form of hypophosphatemic rickets?
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 271: What is the mode of inheritance for the most common form of hypophosphatemic rickets?
- A. Autosomal Recessive (AR)
- B. Autosomal Dominant (AD)
- C. X-Linked Recessive (XR)
- D. X-Linked Dominant (XD) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***X-Linked Dominant (XD)*** - The most common form of hypophosphatemic rickets is **X-linked hypophosphatemic rickets (XLH)**, which is inherited in an X-linked dominant pattern. - This condition is caused by mutations in the **PHEX gene** on the X chromosome, leading to impaired phosphate reabsorption in the kidneys. *Autosomal Recessive (AR)* - While some rare forms of hypophosphatemic rickets exist with **autosomal recessive** inheritance, they are not the most common. - These forms typically involve mutations in genes affecting phosphate transport or vitamin D metabolism, distinct from the primary defect in XLH. *Autosomal Dominant (AD)* - There are also rare **autosomal dominant** forms of hypophosphatemic rickets, such as hereditary hypophosphatemic rickets with hypercalciuria (HHRH) or autosomal dominant hypophosphatemic rickets (ADHR). - However, these are less common than the X-linked dominant form (XLH). *X-Linked Recessive (XR)* - **X-linked recessive** inheritance typically affects males more severely and exclusively, with carrier females usually unaffected or mildly affected. - In X-linked dominant conditions like XLH, both males and females are affected, though females may exhibit variable expressivity.
Pathology
2 questionsWhat is the number of antigens typically evaluated in comprehensive HLA matching for organ transplantation?
Which of the following is a chromosomal instability syndrome?
NEET-PG 2015 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 271: What is the number of antigens typically evaluated in comprehensive HLA matching for organ transplantation?
- A. 10 (Correct Answer)
- B. 4
- C. 16
- D. 22
Explanation: ***10*** - The **number of criteria for HLA matching** in organ transplantation is typically 10, consisting of 6 class I and 4 class II antigens. - Proper HLA matching is critical for minimizing the risk of **graft rejection** and ensuring **recipient compatibility** [1]. *16* - While there are various HLA antigens, a total of **16** criteria is not a standard number used for matching purposes. - This number may include other factors but does not represent the core criteria for **HLA matching**. *4* - HLA matching involves more than **4 criteria**, inadequate for reliable transplantation outcomes. - This number does not encompass the essential **class I and class II antigens** that are necessary for effective matching. *22* - A total of **22 criteria** exceeds the conventional standard for HLA matching, which is not practical or necessary. - This figure may relate to overall HLA typing but is not applicable for the matching process itself. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 179-180.
Question 272: Which of the following is a chromosomal instability syndrome?
- A. Bloom syndrome (Correct Answer)
- B. Fanconi anemia
- C. Ataxia-telangiectasia
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Bloom syndrome*** - Bloom syndrome is the **classic chromosomal instability syndrome** characterized by **spontaneous chromosomal breaks, gaps, and markedly increased sister chromatid exchanges (SCEs)**. - It is an **autosomal recessive disorder** caused by mutations in the BLM gene (RecQ helicase family), leading to impaired DNA repair and replication [1]. - Patients exhibit **growth deficiency, photosensitive facial erythema, immunodeficiency**, and a dramatically **increased risk of cancers** at an early age. - The **hallmark laboratory finding** is a 10-fold increase in sister chromatid exchanges, making it the **prototypical chromosomal instability disorder**. *Fanconi anemia* - Fanconi anemia is **also a chromosomal instability syndrome**, characterized by **chromosomal breakage** when lymphocytes are exposed to DNA crosslinking agents (DEB/MMC test) [1]. - However, it presents primarily with **progressive bone marrow failure, congenital anomalies** (thumb/radial ray, café-au-lait spots, short stature), and increased cancer risk (particularly AML and squamous cell carcinomas). - While chromosomal instability is present, the **clinical presentation is dominated by bone marrow failure**, distinguishing it from Bloom syndrome. *Ataxia-telangiectasia* - Ataxia-telangiectasia is **also a chromosomal instability syndrome** with chromosomal breaks and translocations (especially involving chromosomes 7 and 14) [1]. - Caused by **ATM gene mutations**, leading to defective DNA double-strand break repair and cell cycle checkpoint control. - However, it is **clinically characterized primarily by progressive cerebellar ataxia, oculocutaneous telangiectasias, immunodeficiency**, and elevated AFP levels. - The **neurological manifestations predominate** the clinical picture, distinguishing it from Bloom syndrome. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because Bloom syndrome is the **classic and prototypical chromosomal instability syndrome**, characterized predominantly by chromosomal instability features rather than other system involvement. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Neoplasia, pp. 322-323.
Physiology
6 questionsIncrease in plasma viscosity is maximally caused by which plasma protein?
What is the typical pH range of intracellular fluid (ICF) compared to extracellular fluid (ECF)?
Which of the following statements about ENaC is incorrect?
What is the composition of epithelial sodium channels?
What is the process of passive transport of molecules through protein pores/channels in the cell membrane?
Which transport process is mediated by carriers and occurs against the concentration gradient?
NEET-PG 2015 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 271: Increase in plasma viscosity is maximally caused by which plasma protein?
- A. Albumin
- B. All have equal effect
- C. Globulin
- D. Fibrinogen (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Globulin*** - Increased levels of **globulin** proteins, particularly in inflammatory or proliferative conditions, have a significant impact on plasma viscosity due to their **high molecular weight** [1]. - **Globulins** contribute to **hyperviscosity syndrome**, which can lead to clinical symptoms like fatigue and visual disturbances [1]. *Albumin* - While **albumin** is the most abundant plasma protein, its primary role is in maintaining **oncotic pressure**, not significantly affecting plasma viscosity. - An increase in albumin does not correlate with plasma viscosity increases to the extent seen with globulins. *All have equal effect* - Different plasma proteins do not have **equal effects** on viscosity; **globulins** and **fibrinogen** particularly influence it more than **albumin**. - The impact on viscosity varies significantly with protein concentration and type, making this statement inaccurate. *Fibrinogen* - **Fibrinogen** does contribute to plasma viscosity but is typically less than that caused by globulins, especially when globulin levels are markedly elevated. - Its effect is more pronounced during **coagulation**, rather than in the general increase of plasma viscosity associated with inflammatory states. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 141-142.
Question 272: What is the typical pH range of intracellular fluid (ICF) compared to extracellular fluid (ECF)?
- A. Typically around 7.0, slightly less than ECF (Correct Answer)
- B. Typically around 7.4, slightly more than ICF
- C. Approximately equal to ECF
- D. Significantly higher than ECF
Explanation: ***Typically around 7.0, slightly less than ECF*** - The **intracellular fluid (ICF)** tends to be slightly more acidic due to metabolic processes within cells that produce **acidic byproducts**. - This makes its pH typically around **7.0–7.2**, which is subtly lower than the extracellular fluid. *Typically around 7.4, slightly more than ICF* - A pH of approximately **7.4** is characteristic of **extracellular fluid (ECF)**, which includes plasma and interstitial fluid. - The ECF is maintained within a **narrow, slightly alkaline** range to support cellular function and enzyme activity throughout the body. *Approximately equal to ECF* - While both fluid compartments are maintained within a **narrow physiological range**, their pH values are not exactly equal. - This slight difference is essential for various biological processes, including maintaining **membrane potential** and **enzyme efficiency**. *Significantly higher than ECF* - The ICF pH is **not significantly higher** than ECF; in fact, it is slightly lower. - Maintaining too high a pH intracellularly would disrupt **cellular metabolism** and **protein structure**.
Question 273: Which of the following statements about ENaC is incorrect?
- A. Present in kidney and GIT
- B. Epithelial channel
- C. Inhibited by amiloride
- D. Composed of 2 homologous subunits (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Composed of 2 homologous subunits*** - ENaC (Epithelial Sodium Channel) is a **heterotrimeric complex** composed of **three distinct subunits**: α, β, and γ. - The functional channel typically has a stoichiometry of 2α:1β:1γ, forming a heterotrimer. - These subunits share sequence homology but are **non-identical proteins**, not just two homologous subunits. - A fourth related subunit (δ) exists and can substitute for α in some tissues, but the classical ENaC is a three-subunit channel. *Epithelial channel* - ENaC is indeed an **epithelial channel** responsible for critical **sodium reabsorption** in various epithelia. - It plays a vital role in regulating **fluid and electrolyte balance** across tight epithelial layers. *Present in kidney and GIT* - ENaC is abundantly expressed in the **distal nephron of the kidney**, specifically in the collecting duct, where it mediates fine-tuning of sodium reabsorption. - It is also present in the **lower gastrointestinal tract (colon)**, contributing to sodium absorption, and in the airways and salivary glands. *Inhibited by amiloride* - **Amiloride** is a well-known **potassium-sparing diuretic** that specifically acts by blocking ENaC. - This inhibition reduces sodium reabsorption and, consequently, water reabsorption, leading to increased diuresis.
Question 274: What is the composition of epithelial sodium channels?
- A. 2α, 1β, 1γ
- B. 1α, 1β, 1γ (Correct Answer)
- C. 2α, 1β
- D. 2α, 1β, 2γ
Explanation: ***1α, 1β, 1γ*** - Epithelial sodium channels (**ENaCs**) are heterotrimeric complexes composed of one **alpha (α)**, one **beta (β)**, and one **gamma (γ) subunit**. - This specific subunit composition is essential for the channel's proper function in **sodium reabsorption** across epithelial tissues. *2α, 1β* - This composition is incomplete as it lacks the **gamma (γ) subunit**, which is a crucial component of the functional ENaC. - While alpha and beta subunits are present, the absence of the gamma subunit would impair the channel's ability to efficiently transport sodium. *2α, 1β, 2γ* - This composition is incorrect because a functional ENaC typically includes only **one gamma (γ) subunit**, not two. - An imbalance in subunit stoichiometry can lead to misfolding or improper assembly, affecting channel function. *2α, 1β, 1γ* - This combination correctly includes all three types of subunits (alpha, beta, gamma) but incorrectly states there are **two alpha (α) subunits**. - A functional ENaC has a single alpha subunit, making this option incorrect.
Question 275: What is the process of passive transport of molecules through protein pores/channels in the cell membrane?
- A. Transcytosis
- B. Diffusion (Correct Answer)
- C. Endocytosis
- D. Active transport
Explanation: ***Diffusion*** - **Diffusion** is the net movement of particles from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration without requiring energy. - When diffusion occurs through **protein channels or pores** in the cell membrane, it is specifically termed **facilitated diffusion** or **channel-mediated diffusion**. - This remains a form of **passive transport** as it moves substances down their concentration gradient without ATP expenditure. - Examples include ion channels (Na⁺, K⁺, Ca²⁺) and aquaporins for water transport. *Active transport* - **Active transport** requires energy (typically ATP) to move substances **against** their concentration gradient. - It involves carrier proteins (pumps) like Na⁺-K⁺ ATPase that undergo conformational changes. - This is fundamentally different from passive transport through pores. *Transcytosis* - **Transcytosis** is a vesicular transport mechanism for moving substances across an entire cell. - It combines **endocytosis** on one side and **exocytosis** on the other side. - This is not passive transport through pores but rather bulk transport. *Endocytosis* - **Endocytosis** involves engulfing extracellular substances by forming membrane-bound vesicles. - Types include phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and receptor-mediated endocytosis. - This requires energy and does not involve transport through pores.
Question 276: Which transport process is mediated by carriers and occurs against the concentration gradient?
- A. Facilitated diffusion
- B. Osmosis
- C. Active transport (Correct Answer)
- D. Endocytosis
Explanation: ***Active transport*** - **Active transport** systems use carrier proteins to move molecules across a membrane **against their concentration gradient**, requiring **metabolic energy** (e.g., from ATP hydrolysis). - This process is crucial for maintaining cellular homeostasis, accumulating specific substances, and establishing ion gradients. *Facilitated diffusion* - **Facilitated diffusion** also uses **carrier proteins**, but it moves substances **down their concentration gradient**, thus **not requiring metabolic energy**. - It increases the rate of diffusion for molecules that cannot easily cross the lipid bilayer, like glucose. *Osmosis* - **Osmosis** is the movement of **water molecules** across a selectively permeable membrane **down their water potential gradient**, driven by solute concentration differences, and does **not involve carrier proteins**. - This process equalizes solute concentrations on both sides of the membrane. *Endocytosis* - **Endocytosis** is a bulk transport mechanism where cells **engulf substances** from outside by forming vesicles from the plasma membrane; it's a form of active transport but **does not typically involve specific carrier proteins** embedded in the membrane for individual molecules. - This process is used for taking in larger molecules, particles, or even other cells.