NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Which Brodmann's area is primarily associated with motor speech?

Area 44. Area 44 - **Brodmann Area 44** is primarily known as **Broca's area**, which is critical for **motor speech production** and language processing [1]. - Damage to this area typically results in **Broca's aphasia**, characterized by non-fluent speech and difficulty forming complete sentences [1]. Area 1, 2, 3 - These Brodmann areas constitute the **primary somatosensory cortex**, responsible for processing **tactile and proprioceptive information** from the body. - They are involved in sensory perception, not directly with motor speech production. Area 4, 6 - **Brodmann Area 4** is the **primary motor cortex**, involved in executing voluntary movements [2]. **Brodmann Area 6** is the **premotor and supplementary motor cortex**, involved in planning and coordinating movements [2]. - While these areas are crucial for motor control, they are not specifically associated as the primary center for motor speech in the same way Broca's area is. Area 40 - **Brodmann Area 40**, also known as the **supramarginal gyrus**, is part of the **parietal lobe** and is involved in phonological processing, language perception, and spatial cognition. - While it plays a role in language, it is not the primary area for motor speech production.

Q: In which condition is the Doll's Eye Reflex tested?

Unconscious patients. ***Unconscious patients*** - The **Doll's Eye Reflex**, also known as the **oculocephalic reflex**, is a brainstem reflex used to assess brainstem function in **comatose or unconscious patients** [1]. - It is positive if the eyes move in the opposite direction to the head turn, indicating intact brainstem pathways [1]. *Hemiplegic* - **Hemiplegia** refers to paralysis on one side of the body, often due to stroke or brain injury. - While it can be associated with altered consciousness, the Doll's Eye Reflex specifically tests brainstem integrity in unconscious states, not the motor deficits of hemiplegia itself. *Paraplegic* - **Paraplegia** is paralysis affecting the lower half of the body. - This condition primarily involves spinal cord damage and does not directly relate to the assessment of brainstem function using the Doll's Eye Reflex. *Cerebral palsy* - **Cerebral palsy** is a group of disorders affecting movement, muscle tone, or posture, caused by damage to the developing brain. - While individuals with cerebral palsy may have neurological impairments, the Doll's Eye Reflex is not a primary diagnostic or assessment tool for this chronic condition; it is used acutely in unconscious states.

Q: What is the normal transpulmonary pressure during quiet breathing?

+5 to +8 cm H2O. ***+5 to +8 cm H2O*** - Transpulmonary pressure (P_tp) is the **difference between alveolar pressure and pleural pressure** (P_alv - P_pl). - During quiet breathing at **functional residual capacity (FRC)**, alveolar pressure is **0 cm H2O** (atmospheric) while pleural pressure is approximately **-5 cm H2O**, giving P_tp = **+5 cm H2O**. - At end-inspiration during quiet breathing, pleural pressure becomes more negative (**-8 cm H2O**) while alveolar pressure remains near atmospheric, resulting in P_tp ≈ **+8 cm H2O**. - This positive transpulmonary pressure gradient is essential to **keep the lungs inflated** against elastic recoil and prevent **atelectasis**. *0 to +1 cm H2O* - This pressure is far too low to maintain lung inflation against elastic recoil forces. - Normal transpulmonary pressure must be several cm H2O positive to counterbalance the lung's tendency to collapse. - This value would result in **near-complete lung collapse**. *0 to -1 cm H2O* - A negative or zero transpulmonary pressure would mean pleural pressure equals or exceeds alveolar pressure. - This condition would cause **immediate lung collapse (pneumothorax)** as there would be no pressure gradient to keep the lungs expanded. *-8 to -5 cm H2O* - This range represents **pleural pressure**, not transpulmonary pressure. - Pleural pressure is indeed -5 to -8 cm H2O during quiet breathing, but transpulmonary pressure is calculated as the difference between alveolar and pleural pressures. - Confusing pleural pressure with transpulmonary pressure is a common error.

Q: Aortic valve closure occurs in which part of cardiac cycle?

Beginning of isovolumetric relaxation. ***Beginning of isovolumetric relaxation*** - Aortic valve closure marks the end of **ventricular systole** and the start of **isovolumetric relaxation**, as blood ceases to be ejected and the ventricle begins to relax while remaining closed. - This event corresponds to the **second heart sound (S2)** and signifies the beginning of a period where ventricular volume remains constant, but pressure drops. *Beginning of isovolumetric contraction* - This phase begins with the closure of the **mitral and tricuspid valves** (first heart sound, S1), as ventricular pressure rises but volume remains constant before ejection. - The aortic valve is still closed at this point, as ventricular pressure is not yet high enough to open it. *Beginning of ventricular ejection* - This phase begins when the **aortic valve opens** as ventricular pressure exceeds aortic pressure, allowing blood to be ejected from the left ventricle. - Aortic valve closure occurs *after* ejection, not at its beginning. *During rapid ventricular filling* - Rapid ventricular filling occurs when the **mitral valve opens** (following isovolumetric relaxation), allowing blood to flow from the atria into the ventricles. - During this phase, the aortic valve is closed, but its closure happened earlier, at the beginning of isovolumetric relaxation.

Q: How many phases are there in the action potential of cardiac muscles?

5 phases. ***5 phases*** - The cardiac myocyte action potential is classically described in **five phases** (phases 0, 1, 2, 3, and 4), which encompass depolarization, repolarization, and the resting state. - Each phase is characterized by specific ion channel activities leading to distinct electrical changes essential for proper cardiac function. *2 phases* - Action potentials in nerve cells typically follow a simpler two-phase model: **depolarization** and **repolarization**. - This model does not account for the additional plateau and resting phases characteristic of cardiac muscle cells. *3 phases* - Some simplified models might describe three phases (depolarization, repolarization, and a resting phase), but this still **omits specific nuances** of cardiac repolarization and the sustained plateau phase. - This simplification leaves out the early repolarization and the critical plateau phase (phase 2), which is vital for the prolonged contraction of the heart. *4 phases* - While some sources might refer to four phases, they typically combine certain repolarization steps or omit the distinct early repolarization phase. - This description would likely miss the **early, rapid repolarization phase (phase 1)**, understating the complex ion movements.

Q: EPSP is due to?

Sodium ion influx. ***Sodium ion influx*** - An **Excitatory Postsynaptic Potential (EPSP)** is caused primarily by the binding of an **excitatory neurotransmitter** to its receptor, leading to the opening of **ligand-gated ion channels** permeable to sodium (Na+) ions. - The **influx of positively charged sodium ions** into the postsynaptic neuron causes a **depolarization** of the membrane potential, making it more likely to reach the threshold for an action potential. *Potassium ion influx* - **Potassium (K+) influx** is not the primary mechanism for generating an EPSP; instead, **potassium efflux** (movement out of the cell) is typically involved in **repolarization** after an action potential or in generating **Inhibitory Postsynaptic Potentials (IPSPs)**. - The movement of K+ into the cell would make the membrane potential more negative, leading to **hyperpolarization** or preventing depolarization. *Sodium ion efflux* - **Sodium (Na+) efflux** is mediated by the **Na+/K+ pump** and is crucial for maintaining the resting membrane potential, but it does **not directly cause an EPSP**. - Pumping Na+ out of the cell would **hyperpolarize** the cell or oppose depolarization, making an action potential less likely. *Calcium ion influx* - While **calcium (Ca2+) influx** is vital for many neuronal processes, including **neurotransmitter release** from the presynaptic terminal, it is **not the primary ionic basis** for generating an EPSP in the postsynaptic neuron itself. - Significant Ca2+ influx can occur during an **action potential** or lead to intracellular signaling, but it's not the main depolarizing current responsible for an EPSP.

Q: During the sympathetic fight-or-flight response, what is the primary cardiovascular effect of epinephrine and norepinephrine on skeletal muscle vasculature?

Increased blood flow to muscles. ***Increased blood flow to muscles*** - **Epinephrine** and **norepinephrine** cause **vasodilation** in skeletal muscle arterioles, shunting blood toward tissues critical for immediate physical action. - This response ensures that muscles have adequate **oxygen** and **nutrients** to support intense activity, enabling a quick escape or confrontation. *Increased blood flow to the skin* - During fight-or-flight, the body prioritizes essential organs, causing **vasoconstriction** in the skin to redirect blood flow away from non-essential areas. - This redirection helps to conserve blood and reduce potential blood loss from surface injuries. *Bronchoconstriction* - **Epinephrine** and **norepinephrine** actually cause **bronchodilation**, leading to the relaxation of airway smooth muscles. - This effect increases the diameter of the airways, allowing more air to enter and exit the lungs, thereby enhancing **oxygen intake** and carbon dioxide expulsion. *Decreased heart rate* - The primary effect of **epinephrine** and **norepinephrine** is to **increase heart rate** and myocardial contractility. - This cardiac acceleration enhances **cardiac output**, ensuring rapid and efficient delivery of oxygenated blood throughout the body to meet the demands of stress.

Q: Maximum density of muscle spindle is found in?

Lumbricals. ***Lumbricals*** - **Lumbricals** are small, intricate muscles in the hand, responsible for fine motor control and precise movements like grasping and manipulating objects. - The high density of **muscle spindles** in lumbricals allows for extremely accurate feedback on muscle length and tension, crucial for **proprioception** and delicate tasks. *Calf muscle* - **Calf muscles** (gastrocnemius and soleus) are large muscles primarily involved in powerful movements like walking and running. - While they do contain muscle spindles for proprioception, their density is lower compared to muscles involved in fine motor control. *Quadriceps muscle* - The **quadriceps femoris** is a large muscle group in the thigh responsible for knee extension and powerful leg movements. - They contain muscle spindles to monitor muscle stretch, but not with the extreme density seen in muscles with fine motor functions. *Triceps* - The **triceps brachii** is a large muscle on the back of the upper arm, primarily responsible for elbow extension. - It has a moderate density of muscle spindles, sufficient for coordinating arm movements but not as high as muscles designed for precision.

Q: Broca's area is primarily involved in which of the following functions?

Speech production. ***Speech production*** - **Broca's area** is a region in the frontal lobe of the dominant hemisphere, typically the left, that is crucial for the formation of coherent and grammatically correct speech. - Damage to this area leads to **Broca's aphasia**, characterized by **non-fluent speech**, difficulty retrieving words, and impaired syntax. *Language comprehension* - **Wernicke's area**, located in the temporal lobe, is primarily responsible for **language comprehension**. - Patients with **Wernicke's aphasia** can produce fluent speech but have difficulty understanding spoken and written language. *Language repetition* - The **arcuate fasciculus**, a bundle of nerve fibers connecting Broca's and Wernicke's areas, is essential for **language repetition**. - Lesions in this pathway result in **conduction aphasia**, where comprehension and fluency are relatively preserved, but repetition is severely impaired. *Reading ability* - Reading ability involves a complex network of brain regions, including the **angular gyrus** and **visual cortex**, in addition to language areas. - While Broca's area contributes to the motor planning aspects of reading aloud, it is not its primary function.

Q: What is the total surface area of the respiratory membrane in a healthy adult human?

75 m2. ***75 m²*** - The **total surface area** of the respiratory membrane in a healthy adult human is approximately **70-80 m²**, with 75 m² being the most accurate estimate among the given options. - This large surface area is primarily attributed to the presence of approximately **300-500 million alveoli**, which are crucial for efficient gas exchange. - Modern measurements using **stereological techniques** have refined earlier estimates and established this range as the current standard. *100 m²* - This value represents an **older estimate** that has been revised downward with more accurate measurement techniques. - While historically cited in older textbooks, current physiological data supports a **smaller surface area** of approximately 70-80 m². *30 m²* - This value is significantly **underestimated** for the total respiratory membrane surface area. - Such a small surface area would result in highly **inefficient gas exchange**, leading to severe respiratory compromise and inability to meet metabolic demands. *50 m²* - While larger than 30 m², this is still an **underestimation** of the full respiratory membrane surface area. - It does not adequately account for the extensive and intricate branching of the **respiratory bronchioles** and the vast number of alveolar sacs.

Question 1

Which Brodmann's area is primarily associated with motor speech?

Accepted Answer

Area 44

Answer

Area 1, 2, 3

Answer

Area 4, 6

Answer

Area 40

Question 2

In which condition is the Doll's Eye Reflex tested?

Accepted Answer

Unconscious patients

Answer

Hemiplegic

Answer

Paraplegic

Answer

Cerebral palsy

Question 3

What is the normal transpulmonary pressure during quiet breathing?

Accepted Answer

+5 to +8 cm H2O

Answer

0 to + 1 cm H2O

Answer

0 to -1 cm H2O

Answer

- 8 to - 5 cm H2O

Question 4

Aortic valve closure occurs in which part of cardiac cycle?

Accepted Answer

Beginning of isovolumetric relaxation

Answer

Beginning of isovolumetric contraction

Answer

During rapid ventricular filling

Answer

Beginning of ventricular ejection

Question 5

How many phases are there in the action potential of cardiac muscles?

Accepted Answer

5 phases

Answer

2 phases

Answer

3 phases

Answer

4 phases

Question 6

EPSP is due to?

Accepted Answer

Sodium ion influx

Answer

Potassium ion influx

Answer

Sodium ion efflux

Answer

Calcium ion influx

Question 7

During the sympathetic fight-or-flight response, what is the primary cardiovascular effect of epinephrine and norepinephrine on skeletal muscle vasculature?

Accepted Answer

Increased blood flow to muscles

Answer

Increased blood flow to the skin

Answer

Bronchoconstriction

Answer

Decreased heart rate

Question 8

Maximum density of muscle spindle is found in?

Accepted Answer

Lumbricals

Answer

Calf muscle

Answer

Triceps

Answer

Quadriceps muscle

Question 9

Broca's area is primarily involved in which of the following functions?

Accepted Answer

Speech production

Answer

Language comprehension

Answer

Language repetition

Answer

Reading ability

Question 10

What is the total surface area of the respiratory membrane in a healthy adult human?

Accepted Answer

75 m2

Answer

30 m2

Answer

50 m2

Answer

100 m2

NEET-PG 2015

Anatomy

Internal Medicine

Physiology