Anatomy
2 questionsWhich of the following extraocular muscles is not supplied by oculomotor nerve?
Extensor carpi radialis longus is
NEET-PG 2015 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1401: Which of the following extraocular muscles is not supplied by oculomotor nerve?
- A. Inferior oblique
- B. Medial rectus
- C. Inferior rectus
- D. Lateral rectus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Lateral rectus*** - The **lateral rectus muscle** is innervated by the **abducens nerve (CN VI)**, not the oculomotor nerve (CN III). [1] - Its primary action is **abduction** of the eye, moving it laterally away from the midline. [1] *Inferior oblique* - The **inferior oblique muscle** is innervated by the **oculomotor nerve (CN III)**. [1] - Its actions include **extorsion**, elevation, and abduction of the eye. [1] *Medial rectus* - The **medial rectus muscle** is innervated by the **oculomotor nerve (CN III)**. [1] - Its primary action is **adduction** of the eye, moving it medially towards the midline. [1] *Inferior rectus* - The **inferior rectus muscle** is innervated by the **oculomotor nerve (CN III)**. [1] - Its actions include **depression**, extorsion, and adduction of the eye. [1]
Question 1402: Extensor carpi radialis longus is
- A. Extensor and radial deviator of the wrist (Correct Answer)
- B. Weak extensor of the wrist
- C. Extensor and ulnar deviator of the wrist
- D. Injured in Posterior interosseous nerve injury
Explanation: ***Extensor and radial deviator of the wrist*** - The **extensor carpi radialis longus (ECRL)** is one of the primary muscles responsible for **extension of the wrist**. [1] - Due to its anatomical position on the radial side of the forearm, it also contributes significantly to **radial deviation** (abduction) of the wrist. [1] *Weak extensor of the wrist* - While it is an extensor, the ECRL is considered a **strong extensor** of the wrist, especially when acting with other extensors like the Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis (ECRB). [1] - Its strength is crucial for tasks requiring **grip and wrist stabilization**. *Extensor and ulnar deviator of the wrist* - The ECRL performs wrist extension but causes **radial deviation**, not ulnar deviation. [1] - **Ulnar deviation** is primarily performed by the **extensor carpi ulnaris** and **flexor carpi ulnaris**. *Injured in Posterior interosseous nerve injury* - The ECRL is innervated by the **radial nerve** **before** it divides into the superficial and deep (posterior interosseous) branches. [2] - Therefore, ECRL function is typically **spared in isolated posterior interosseous nerve injuries**, which mainly affect muscles in the deep compartment of the posterior forearm. [2]
Biochemistry
1 questionsSpectroscopy primarily studies the interaction between _____ and matter.
NEET-PG 2015 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1401: Spectroscopy primarily studies the interaction between _____ and matter.
- A. Alpha particles
- B. Protons
- C. Electromagnetic radiation (Correct Answer)
- D. Positrons
Explanation: ***Electromagnetic radiation*** - **Spectroscopy** is the study of the interaction between **matter** and **electromagnetic radiation**, which includes a range from radio waves to gamma rays. - This interaction provides information about the **structure, composition, and physical properties** of matter. *Alpha particles* - **Alpha particles** are composed of two protons and two neutrons, essentially a helium nucleus. - While they interact with matter, their study is more characteristic of **nuclear physics** and **radioactivity**, not the primary focus of spectroscopy. *Protons* - **Protons** are subatomic particles with a positive charge found in the nucleus of an atom. - Their interaction with matter is studied in various fields, but spectroscopy primarily uses **electromagnetic radiation** to probe atomic and molecular energy levels. *Positrons* - **Positrons** are the antimatter counterparts of electrons, having a positive charge. - Their interaction with matter leads to **annihilation events** producing gamma rays, which is fundamental to techniques like Positron Emission Tomography (**PET**), but not the broad field of spectroscopy.
Community Medicine
2 questionsInfective period of chicken pox is
Disinfection of urine is which type of disinfection ?
NEET-PG 2015 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1401: Infective period of chicken pox is
- A. 2 days before and 5 days after rash appearance (Correct Answer)
- B. 4 days before and 5 days after rash appearance
- C. 4 days before and 4 days after rash appearance
- D. 2 days before and 2 days after rash appearance
Explanation: ***2 days before and 5 days after rash appearance*** - The **infective period** for **chickenpox (varicella)** begins approximately **1-2 days before the rash appears** and continues until **all lesions have crusted over**, which typically occurs around **5-7 days after rash onset**. - According to **CDC guidelines** and standard medical references, patients are contagious from 1-2 days prior to rash onset until all vesicles are scabbed. - The timeframe of **2 days before and 5 days after** represents the **clinically accepted standard** for isolation and infection control purposes. *4 days before and 5 days after rash appearance* - This option **overestimates the start of the infective period**. - The incubation period of chickenpox is 10-21 days, but **infectivity does not begin 4 days before rash** - it starts only 1-2 days prior. - This extended timeframe is not supported by standard medical literature. *4 days before and 4 days after rash appearance* - This option **overestimates when infectivity begins** and **underestimates the duration after rash onset**. - Infectivity starts 1-2 days before rash, not 4 days before. - The period after rash onset should extend until all lesions are crusted (typically 5-7 days). *2 days before and 2 days after rash appearance* - While this option correctly identifies when infectivity begins, it **significantly underestimates the duration after rash onset**. - Patients remain contagious until **all lesions have crusted over**, which usually takes **5-7 days** after rash appearance, not just 2 days. - Premature discontinuation of isolation at 2 days would pose significant infection control risks.
Question 1402: Disinfection of urine is which type of disinfection ?
- A. Concurrent (Correct Answer)
- B. Terminal
- C. Preconcurrent
- D. Precurrent
Explanation: ***Concurrent*** - **Concurrent disinfection** refers to the immediate disinfection of infectious materials and objects **as soon as they are discharged** from the body of an infected person. - Disinfection of **body excretions** (urine, feces, sputum) and articles contaminated by them is done **promptly after they are voided**, making it concurrent disinfection. - In the context of urine from infected patients, it should be disinfected **immediately after collection** to prevent spread of infection. *Terminal* - **Terminal disinfection** is performed **after the patient has been discharged, died, or is no longer infectious**. - It involves thorough cleaning and disinfection of the **room, furniture, and environment** that the patient occupied. - Terminal disinfection is not the routine disinfection of body excretions, but rather the final cleaning of the patient's surroundings. *Preconcurrent* - **"Preconcurrent"** is not a standard or recognized term in the classification of disinfection types. - This option does not describe a method or timing of disinfection that is medically or scientifically established. *Precurrent* - Similar to "preconcurrent," **"precurrent"** is not a recognized category or term used to describe a type of disinfection process. - The standard classifications include **concurrent, terminal, and prophylactic disinfection**.
Forensic Medicine
1 questionsNovus actus interveniens is related to?
NEET-PG 2015 - Forensic Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1401: Novus actus interveniens is related to?
- A. Therapeutic misadventure
- B. Facts speaking for itself
- C. Contributory negligence
- D. Breaking of chain (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Breaking of chain*** - **Novus actus interveniens** (a new intervening act) is a legal concept referring to an event that breaks the **chain of causation** between an initial act of negligence and the resulting harm. - This means that a new, independent act occurs that is so significant it negates the responsibility of the original wrongdoer for the final outcome. *Therapeutic misadventure* - This refers to an **unforeseen complication** or adverse event that occurs during a medical or surgical procedure despite appropriate care being taken. - It does not necessarily involve a break in the chain of causation, as the misadventure is typically directly related to the initial medical intervention. *Facts speaking for itself* - This translates to the legal doctrine of **res ipsa loquitur**, which means "the thing speaks for itself." - It applies when an injury is of such a nature that it would not ordinarily occur without negligence, and the instrumentality causing the injury was under the exclusive control of the defendant. It's about establishing negligence, not breaking causation. *Contributory negligence* - This is a defense in tort law where the plaintiff's own **negligence contributed** to their injury, thereby reducing or sometimes barring their recovery. - While it deals with fault, it's distinct from novus actus interveniens, which focuses on whether the original defendant's act directly caused the final harm.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsLocomotor ataxia, a late manifestation of syphilis due to parenchymatous involvement of the spinal cord, is called
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1401: Locomotor ataxia, a late manifestation of syphilis due to parenchymatous involvement of the spinal cord, is called
- A. Tabes dorsalis (Correct Answer)
- B. Syphilitic amyotrophy
- C. Meningo vascular syphilis
- D. General paralysis of insane
Explanation: ***Tabes dorsalis*** - This condition is a **late manifestation of tertiary syphilis** caused by the demyelination and degeneration of the posterior columns and dorsal roots of the spinal cord [1], [2]. - It specifically leads to **locomotor ataxia** due to the loss of proprioception and vibration sense, characteristic of parenchymatous involvement [2]. *Syphilitic amyotrophy* - This is a rare form of neurosyphilis that presents with neurological symptoms primarily affecting **motor neurons**, leading to muscle weakness and atrophy. - It does not typically present as **locomotor ataxia** with sensory deficits as the primary feature. *Meningovascular syphilis* - This form of neurosyphilis predominantly affects the **blood vessels and meninges of the brain and spinal cord**, leading to infarcts and stroke-like symptoms. - While it can cause neurological deficits, it does not typically manifest as the specific sensory ataxia described as **tabes dorsalis**. *General paralysis of insane* - Also known as **general paresis**, this is another late manifestation of neurosyphilis primarily affecting the brain, leading to **dementia, personality changes, and psychiatric symptoms**. - While it involves parenchymatous brain damage, it does not present with **locomotor ataxia** as its defining feature.
Pathology
1 questionsEffect of hypoparathyroidism on bones include -
NEET-PG 2015 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1401: Effect of hypoparathyroidism on bones include -
- A. Brown tumours
- B. Subperiosteal Resorption of Bone
- C. None of the Above (Correct Answer)
- D. Multiple Cysts in Bone
Explanation: ***None of the Above*** - **Hypoparathyroidism** leads to **decreased parathyroid hormone (PTH)** levels, resulting in **hypocalcemia** and **hyperphosphatemia**. [3] - Unlike hyperparathyroidism, which causes bone resorption, hypoparathyroidism is generally associated with **increased bone density** due to reduced osteoclastic activity. *Brown tumours* - **Brown tumors** are focal lesions caused by **osteoclastic activity** and fibrous tissue replacement in severe **hyperparathyroidism**, which is the opposite of the condition described. [1], [2] - They are a manifestation of **osteitis fibrosa cystica**, a skeletal complication of prolonged excess PTH. [2] *Subperiosteal Resorption of Bone* - **Subperiosteal bone resorption** is a classic radiographic sign of **hyperparathyroidism**, where excessive PTH causes osteoclasts to erode bone, particularly in the phalanges. [1] - This process is driven by **elevated PTH**, which is absent in hypoparathyroidism. *Multiple Cysts in Bone* - **Multiple cysts in bone** (also known as osteitis fibrosa cystica) are characteristic of **severe hyperparathyroidism**, resulting from excessive bone remodeling and fibrous tissue proliferation. [2] - Hypoparathyroidism does not cause bone cysts; instead, it tends to lead to **increased bone mineral density**. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors, pp. 1194-1195. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Endocrine System, pp. 1105-1106. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Endocrine System, pp. 1106-1107.
Psychiatry
1 questionsSexual gratification by inflicting pain on partner -
NEET-PG 2015 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1401: Sexual gratification by inflicting pain on partner -
- A. Sadism (Correct Answer)
- B. Necrophilia
- C. Bestiality
- D. Sodomy
Explanation: ***Sadism*** - **Sadism** is a paraphilia defined by the achievement of **sexual gratification** through the act of inflicting physical or psychological **pain, suffering, or humiliation** on another person. - The inflicted pain is an essential component for the individual with sadism to experience **sexual arousal** and pleasure. *Necrophilia* - **Necrophilia** is a paraphilia characterized by sexual attraction to or sexual acts with **corpses**. - This involves sexual contact with deceased individuals, not the infliction of pain on a living partner. *Bestiality* - **Bestiality** refers to sexual activity or attraction between a human and an **animal**. - This paraphilia involves animals and does not relate to inflicting pain on a human partner. *Sodomy* - Historically, **sodomy** has been used as a legal term to refer to "unnatural carnal copulation" and often specifically to **anal intercourse** or oral sex. - While it can be non-consensual in some contexts, it primarily refers to specific sexual acts and not necessarily the infliction of pain for sexual gratification by default, as covered by sadism.
Radiology
1 questionsWhich common tracer in PET is usually administered in the form of a glucose sugar?
NEET-PG 2015 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1401: Which common tracer in PET is usually administered in the form of a glucose sugar?
- A. Aluminum - 12
- B. Fluorine 18 (Correct Answer)
- C. Carbon 11
- D. Oxygen 15
Explanation: ***Fluorine 18*** - **18F-FDG** (Fluorodeoxyglucose) is the most common PET tracer, utilizing **Fluorine-18** as its radioactive component. - FDG is a glucose analog, meaning it mimics glucose and is taken up by metabolically active cells, allowing for imaging of **glucose metabolism**. *Aluminum - 12* - **Aluminum-12** is not a common radionuclide used in PET imaging. - The most common tracers in PET are **positron emitters** like Fluorine-18, Carbon-11, Nitrogen-13, and Oxygen-15. *Carbon 11* - **Carbon-11** can be used in PET tracers (e.g., 11C-methionine), but it is **less common** than 18F-FDG due to its shorter half-life. - Its short half-life (20 minutes) requires an **on-site cyclotron** for production, limiting its widespread use. *Oxygen 15* - **Oxygen-15** is employed in PET tracers (e.g., 15O-water for cerebral blood flow), but it has an **even shorter half-life** (2 minutes) than Carbon-11. - Its extremely short half-life makes it **impractical** for routine clinical use in the form of a glucose sugar.