Anatomy
1 questionsSubmucosal plexus is -
NEET-PG 2015 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1391: Submucosal plexus is -
- A. Myenteric plexus
- B. Tympanic plexus
- C. Meissner's plexus (Correct Answer)
- D. Auerbach's plexus
Explanation: ***Meissner's plexus*** - The **submucosal plexus** is also known as **Meissner's plexus**, located in the submucosal layer of the **gastrointestinal tract** [1]. - It primarily controls local **secretions**, **absorption**, and **blood flow** within the gut [2]. *Myenteric plexus* - The **myenteric plexus** is also known as **Auerbach's plexus**, located between the longitudinal and circular muscle layers of the **gastrointestinal tract** [1]. - It primarily controls **gastrointestinal motility**, not local secretions [1]. *Tympanic plexus* - The **tympanic plexus** is a network of nerves in the **middle ear** that provides sensory innervation to the tympanic cavity. - It is unrelated to the gastrointestinal tract or its intrinsic nervous system. *Auerbach's plexus* - **Auerbach's plexus** is another name for the **myenteric plexus**, which is located between the muscle layers [1]. - It is responsible for gut motility and distinct from the submucosal plexus.
Dermatology
1 questionsWhich of the following is true about keratinocytes?
NEET-PG 2015 - Dermatology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1391: Which of the following is true about keratinocytes?
- A. Differentiate in basal layer
- B. Ectoderm derived cell (Correct Answer)
- C. Mature in basal layer
- D. Present only in basal layer
Explanation: ***Ectoderm derived cell*** - Keratinocytes originate from the **ectoderm**, one of the three primary germ layers in embryonic development, which gives rise to the epidermis. - This ectodermal origin is fundamental to their role in forming the protective outer layer of the skin. *Differentiate in basal layer* - Keratinocytes in the **basal layer (stratum basale)** are primarily responsible for **proliferation** (cell division) rather than differentiation. - **Differentiation** into flattened, keratin-filled cells occurs as they migrate upwards through the epidermal layers. *Mature in basal layer* - Maturation, which involves the accumulation of **keratin** and the loss of organelles, primarily occurs in the **upper layers** of the epidermis (stratum spinosum, granulosum, corneum). - The basal layer is where new cells are generated, not where they reach their mature, fully keratinized state. *Present only in basal layer* - While keratinocytes originate in the basal layer, they are the **predominant cell type throughout all layers of the epidermis**. - They represent approximately 90% of epidermal cells and are found from the stratum basale to the stratum corneum.
Forensic Medicine
2 questionsIPC 304B is related to -
Sex with cadaver is called -
NEET-PG 2015 - Forensic Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1391: IPC 304B is related to -
- A. Death caused by negligence
- B. Dowry death (Correct Answer)
- C. Punishment for cruelty by husband or his relatives
- D. Punishment of culpable homicide, not amounting to murder
Explanation: ***Dowry death*** - **IPC 304B** specifically addresses **dowry death**, where the death of a woman is caused by burns or bodily injury or occurs otherwise than under normal circumstances within seven years of her marriage, and it is shown that soon before her death, she was subjected to cruelty or harassment by her husband or any relative of her husband for, or in connection with, any demand for dowry. - This section aims to curb the practice of **dowry-related violence** and holds the perpetrators accountable. *Death caused by negligence* - This falls under **IPC 304A**, which deals with causing **death by negligence**, such as rash or negligent acts not amounting to culpable homicide. - It does not involve the specific elements of dowry demand or harassment within seven years of marriage. *Punishment for cruelty by husband or his relatives* - This is covered by **IPC 498A**, which penalizes **cruelty by a husband or his relatives** towards a married woman. - While related to marital abuse, **IPC 498A** does not specifically address death; instead, it focuses on harassment and cruelty. *Punishment of culpable homicide, not amounting to murder* - This offense is delineated in **IPC 304**. - It applies when a death is caused with the intention of causing bodily injury likely to cause death, or with knowledge that the act is likely to cause death, but without the specific intent or knowledge that would elevate it to murder.
Question 1392: Sex with cadaver is called -
- A. Voyeurism
- B. Exhibitionism
- C. Necrophilia (Correct Answer)
- D. Undinism
Explanation: ***Necrophilia*** - **Necrophilia** is a paraphilia characterized by sexual attraction to or sexual acts with corpses. - It is classified as an extremely rare and severe mental disorder, often associated with a history of sexual abuse or profound psychological disturbances. *Voyeurism* - **Voyeurism** involves obtaining sexual gratification from secretly observing unsuspecting individuals undressing, naked, or engaging in sexual acts. - It does not involve direct sexual contact or interaction, especially not with cadavers. *Exhibitionism* - **Exhibitionism** is a paraphilia characterized by the recurrent powerful urge or fantasies of, and sexual arousal from, exposing one's genitals to an unsuspecting stranger. - The primary goal is usually to shock or distress the observer, not to engage in sexual acts with a deceased person. *Undinism* - **Undinism** is an outdated term, sometimes used to refer to a fetish or paraphilia involving urine (urophilia). - It is not related to sexual attraction or activity with cadavers.
Internal Medicine
2 questionsRULE OF HALVES RELATED TO-
Autosomal recessive Polycystic kidneys - all are true except -
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1391: RULE OF HALVES RELATED TO-
- A. OBESITY
- B. BLINDNESS
- C. BURNS
- D. HYPERTENSION (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***HYPERTENSION*** - The **rule of halves** in hypertension refers to the observation that often **only half of people** with hypertension are diagnosed, only half of those diagnosed are treated, and only half of those treated achieve adequate control. - This rule highlights challenges in the **diagnosis, treatment, and management** of hypertension at a population level. *OBESITY* - While obesity is a significant public health issue, the **rule of halves** is not a commonly used principle to describe its diagnosis and management. - Obesity is typically assessed using **Body Mass Index (BMI)** and associated health risks. *BLINDNESS* - The **rule of halves** is not a recognized concept in the context of blindness or visual impairment. - Blindness is often addressed through efforts in **prevention, treatment, and rehabilitation**. *BURNS* - The **rule of halves** is unrelated to the assessment or management of burns. - The severity of burns is commonly assessed using the **Rule of Nines** (Wallace Rule of Nines) [1] to estimate the percentage of total body surface area affected.
Question 1392: Autosomal recessive Polycystic kidneys - all are true except -
- A. Defective gene is PKHD1
- B. Both kidneys show innumerable cysts
- C. USG shows salt and pepper appearance (Correct Answer)
- D. Seen in adults
Explanation: ***USG shows salt and pepper appearance*** - The **"salt and pepper" appearance** on imaging is characteristic of **autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD)** due to multiple renal cysts of varying sizes and associated vascular calcifications, not autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD). - ARPKD typically presents with **enlarged, hyperechoic kidneys** with loss of corticomedullary differentiation on ultrasound due to numerous small cysts. *Defective gene is PKHD1* - The dysfunctional gene in **autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD)** is indeed **PKHD1**, located on chromosome 6. - This gene encodes for **fibrocystin/polyductin**, a protein primarily found in renal and biliary epithelial cells, whose mutation leads to cyst formation. *Both kidneys show innumerable cysts* - ARPKD is characterized by **bilateral involvement** with diffuse dilation of the collecting ducts, leading to innumerable small cysts in both kidneys. - These cysts cause significant **renal enlargement** and can lead to severe renal dysfunction. *Seen in adults* - **Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD)** typically manifests in **infancy or childhood**, often prenatally or neonatally. - While some milder forms may present later in childhood, it is **not generally seen in adults**; adult-onset polycystic kidney disease is usually autosomal dominant (ADPKD) [1].
Pathology
2 questionsFat necrosis is common in:
Which of the following is the most frequent primary malignant tumor of the CNS?
NEET-PG 2015 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1391: Fat necrosis is common in:
- A. Breast (Correct Answer)
- B. Retroperitoneal fat
- C. Omentum
- D. All of the options
Explanation: ***Breast*** - **Fat necrosis** in the breast is a relatively common benign condition, often resulting from trauma, surgery, or radiation. - It presents as a palpable lump that can mimic malignancy, making its differentiation crucial. *Retroperitoneal fat* - While fat necrosis can occur in the retroperitoneum, particularly in cases of **acute pancreatitis**, it is not considered "common" in this location independently [1]. - The primary tissue affected in pancreatitis is the pancreas itself, with necrosis extending to surrounding fat [1]. *Omentum* - **Omental fat necrosis** can occur but is rare and usually associated with torsion of the omentum or, less commonly, blunt abdominal trauma. - It is not a common site for isolated fat necrosis compared to the breast. *All of the options* - Although fat necrosis can occur in all these locations under specific circumstances, it is not "common" in all of them when considering the typical incidence of the condition. - **Breast fat necrosis** is more frequently encountered in clinical practice than in the omentum or retroperitoneal region. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Pancreas, p. 895.
Question 1392: Which of the following is the most frequent primary malignant tumor of the CNS?
- A. Glioblastoma multiforme (Correct Answer)
- B. Oligodendroglioma
- C. Medulloblastoma
- D. Meningioma
Explanation: ***Glioblastoma multiforme*** - **Glioblastoma multiforme (GBM)** is the most common and aggressive primary malignant brain tumor in adults [1]. - It is a **grade IV astrocytoma**, characterized by rapid growth, necrosis, and microvascular proliferation [1]. *Oligodendroglioma* - **Oligodendrogliomas** are primary glial tumors but are less common than GBM. - They typically have a more indolent course than GBM and are often characterized by **IDH mutations** and **1p/19q co-deletion**. *Medulloblastoma* - **Medulloblastoma** is the most common malignant brain tumor in children, but it is rare in adults [2]. - It arises in the **cerebellum** and is a type of embryonal tumor [2]. *Meningioma* - **Meningiomas** are the most common primary brain tumors overall, but they are typically **benign** and originate from the meninges. - While they can be symptomatic due to compression, they are not primarily malignant in the way GBM is. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Central Nervous System, pp. 1308-1310. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Manifestations Of Central And Peripheral Nervous System Disease, pp. 725-726.
Physiology
1 questionsStress induced hyperglycemia is mediated through which hormone:
NEET-PG 2015 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1391: Stress induced hyperglycemia is mediated through which hormone:
- A. Cortisol (Correct Answer)
- B. Epinephrine
- C. Insulin
- D. Growth hormone
Explanation: ***Cortisol*** - **Cortisol** is the **primary mediator** of stress-induced hyperglycemia among the counter-regulatory hormones - It promotes **gluconeogenesis** (formation of new glucose from amino acids and glycerol) in the liver - Stimulates **protein catabolism** in muscles, providing substrates for gluconeogenesis - Induces **insulin resistance** in peripheral tissues, reducing glucose uptake - Released as part of the **HPA axis response** to stress, with sustained elevation during prolonged stress - This is the **correct answer** for stress-induced hyperglycemia mediation *Epinephrine* - **Epinephrine** (adrenaline) is a potent hyperglycemic hormone but acts as an **acute, immediate response** to stress - Rapidly increases blood glucose through **glycogenolysis** (breakdown of glycogen) in liver and muscles - Stimulates **gluconeogenesis** and inhibits insulin secretion - Effects are **rapid but short-lived**, making it more of an emergency response rather than the sustained mediator - Works synergistically with cortisol but is not the primary sustained mediator *Growth hormone* - **Growth hormone** does contribute to hyperglycemia through **anti-insulin effects** and promoting lipolysis - Its hyperglycemic effects are **slower and less pronounced** compared to cortisol and epinephrine - Plays a role in **chronic stress** but is not the primary acute mediator - More important for **long-term metabolic adaptation** rather than immediate stress response *Insulin* - **Insulin** is a **glucose-lowering hormone** that facilitates glucose uptake into cells - During stress, insulin secretion is **suppressed** and tissues become **insulin-resistant** due to counter-regulatory hormones - It does **not mediate** stress-induced hyperglycemia; rather, its action is **opposed** by stress hormones - Decreased insulin action contributes to hyperglycemia but insulin itself is not the mediator
Surgery
1 questionsLe Fort's operation is done in
NEET-PG 2015 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1391: Le Fort's operation is done in
- A. Elderly menopausal patients with advanced prolapse (Correct Answer)
- B. Women over 40 years, those who have completed their families
- C. Women under 40 years who are desirous of retaining their menstrual and reproduction function
- D. Young woman suffering from second or third degree prolapse
Explanation: ***Elderly menopausal patients with advanced prolapse*** - Le Fort's operation is a **colpocleisis** procedure, which permanently closes the vagina, making it suitable for elderly patients who are no longer sexually active. - It is often reserved for those with **advanced uterine or vaginal prolapse** who are not candidates for more extensive surgeries due to comorbidities. *Women over 40 years, those who have completed their families* - While these patients may have completed their families, Le Fort's operation is a **definitive and irreversible procedure** that is typically reserved for those who are also postmenopausal and have no desire for future sexual activity. - Other less invasive or reconstructive options might be considered for women over 40 who still maintain sexual activity. *Women under 40 years who are desirous of retaining their menstrual and reproduction function* - Le Fort's operation involves **closure of the vagina**, which makes it impossible to retain menstrual or reproductive function. - Younger women would typically be offered **uterine-sparing procedures** or reconstructive surgeries to preserve these functions. *Young woman suffering from second or third degree prolapse* - For young women, even with significant prolapse, the primary goal is often to **preserve fertility, menstruation, and sexual function**. - Le Fort's operation would be contraindicated because it involves **vaginal obliteration**, making it unsuitable for a young woman.