NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Testamentary capacity refers to:

Ability to make a valid will. ***Ability to make a valid will*** - **Testamentary capacity** is a legal term describing the mental ability a person must have to make or alter a valid will. - It involves understanding the nature of the act, the extent of one's property, and the natural objects of one's bounty (i.e., who would normally inherit). *Right to vote* - The **right to vote** is known as suffrage and is governed by electoral laws, which are distinct from the legal requirements for making a will. - This capacity is related to citizenship and age, not the complex cognitive functions required for testamentary capacity. *Ability to give evidence* - The capacity to give **evidence** in court is known as witness competency, which assesses a person's ability to perceive, remember, and communicate events accurately. - While both involve mental faculties, the specific legal criteria and context for giving evidence differ from those for making a will. *Criminal liability* - **Criminal liability** refers to being held responsible for a crime and depends on factors such as mens rea (guilty mind) and actus reus (guilty act). - This concept is entirely separate from the civil legal concept of creating a valid will.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of close-range shotgun wounds?

Beveling of bone at exit wound. ***Beveling of bone at exit wound*** - **Beveling of bone is NOT a characteristic feature specific to close-range shotgun wounds** - Beveling relates to the **projectile-bone interaction** and the mechanics of bone perforation, not the range of fire - **Internal (exit) beveling** occurs when the projectile creates a cone-shaped defect as it exits the bone, occurring at **any firing distance** when bone is perforated - This is a feature determined by **projectile trajectory and energy**, not by whether the wound is close-range or distant *Contact wound with stellate laceration* - This is **highly characteristic** of contact or very close-range shotgun wounds (muzzle pressed against skin) - The **hot gases expand beneath the skin** causing irregular, star-shaped (stellate) tearing - Classic forensic finding in contact shotgun wounds *Powder tattooing around entry wound* - **Powder tattooing (stippling) IS characteristic** of close-range shotgun wounds - Occurs at **intermediate range (typically 6 inches to 3 feet)** where unburnt powder grains embed in the skin - Creates a characteristic pattern of small abrasions and contusions around the entry wound - Absent only in contact wounds (powder driven into wound) or distant wounds (powder disperses) *Abrasion collar around entry wound* - **Abrasion collar IS characteristic** of close-range shotgun wounds (and most gunshot wounds) - Results from the **bullet or pellets abrading the skin** as they enter - Creates a rim of scraped epidermis around the wound margin - Present in both close-range and distant shotgun wounds

Q: Rectified spirit is NOT used as preservative in case of:

Phenol. ***Phenol*** - Rectified spirit is **NOT used** for preserving specimens containing **phenol** because phenol is a **volatile poison**. - When mixed with alcohol, phenol can **evaporate** or undergo chemical interactions, leading to loss of the poison and inaccurate toxicological analysis. - Due to this **chemical incompatibility**, phenol specimens should be preserved by **refrigeration without chemical preservatives** or in specific non-alcoholic media. *Cyanide* - Rectified spirit is commonly used as a preservative for specimens involving **cyanide** poisoning cases. - It helps in preventing putrefaction while the specimen is awaiting toxicological analysis. *Alphos* - **Alphos** (aluminum phosphide) poisoning cases often require tissue or organ preservation. - Rectified spirit can be used to preserve tissues, facilitating subsequent analysis for phosphine gas or its metabolites. *Insecticides* - In cases involving **insecticide** poisoning, rectified spirit is a standard preservative for biological samples. - It helps maintain the integrity of the sample, allowing for accurate detection and quantification of various insecticide compounds.

Q: In an incised wound, all of the following are true, except:

Bleeding is generally less than in lacerations. ***Bleeding is generally less than in lacerations*** - Incised wounds, due to their **clean-cut nature** and often transected blood vessels, typically result in **more profuse external bleeding** compared to lacerations. - Lacerations often have torn vessels and crushed tissue, which can promote **hemostasis** to some degree, leading to less external bleeding than deep incised wounds. *Tailing is often present* - **Tailing** refers to the superficial beginning and ending of an incised wound, appearing as a shallow scratch. - This feature is characteristic of incised wounds created by a **sharp object drawn across the skin**. *It has clean-cut margins* - Incised wounds are caused by **sharp-edged instruments** that slice through tissue, resulting in margins that are smooth, sharp, and without significant tissue damage. - The absence of crushing or tearing around the wound edges is a hallmark of an incised wound. *Length of injury does not correspond with length of blade* - The length of an incised wound can often be **longer than the width of the blade** (e.g., a small knife producing a long wound) or **shorter than the blade's full length** if only a part of the blade comes into contact with the skin. - This lack of direct correlation is important for forensic analysis in determining the nature of the weapon.

Q: What is the maximum punishment under Section 304-A IPC for causing death by negligence?

2 years. **2 years** - Section 304A of the **Indian Penal Code (IPC)** specifically dealt with causing **death by negligence** and prescribed a maximum imprisonment of **two years** (as per law applicable in 2015). - This section was applied in cases where death was caused by a rash or negligent act not amounting to culpable homicide. - **Note:** Section 304A IPC has been replaced by Section 106 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) 2023, which prescribes a maximum of 5 years imprisonment. However, for this NEET-2015 question, the answer reflects the law as it existed at that time. *3 years* - While some offenses in the IPC carried a punishment of 3 years, **death by negligence** under Section 304A did not fall into this category (as per 2015 law). - More severe forms of culpable homicide not amounting to murder would attract higher penalties, but not simple negligence. *1 year* - A punishment of **one year** was too lenient for causing death by negligence, as the potential harm is significant. - The law recognized the gravity of causing death, even if unintentional, by imposing a more substantial penalty. *4 years* - A punishment of **four years** would have extended beyond the maximum prescribed limit for causing death by negligence under **Section 304A IPC** (as per 2015 law). - Such a sentence would typically be reserved for more serious offenses with a higher degree of intent or culpability.

Q: Sec. 176 CrPC is related to?

Magistrate inquest. ***Magistrate inquest*** - Section 176 of the CrPC (Code of Criminal Procedure) specifically deals with the **inquiry by a Magistrate into the cause of death** in certain circumstances. - This section outlines the powers and procedures for a Magistrate to hold an inquest, particularly in cases involving death in police custody, or where there is suspicion of foul play, etc. *Summons* - Summons are dealt with under a different part of the CrPC, primarily starting from **Section 61**, which details the form and service of summons. - They are legal documents compelling an individual to appear in court, and are not related to the inquiry into the cause of death. *Coroner inquest* - While coroner inquests serve a similar purpose of inquiring into the cause of death, the term "coroner" is not primarily used in the Indian legal system; instead, **Magistrates primarily conduct such inquiries**. - The procedure and authority for these inquiries are laid out in the CrPC, which designates the role to Magistrates rather than coroners. *Police inquest* - Police inquests are conducted under **Section 174 CrPC**, where the police investigate the apparent cause of death, often in cases of suicide, accidental death, or when there is doubt about the cause. - While police conduct an initial inquiry and prepare a report, a Magistrate's inquest under Section 176 comes into play when there are specific suspicious circumstances or custodial deaths, providing an additional layer of scrutiny.

Q: A witness, who after taking oath, willfully makes a statement which he knows or believes to be false is guilty of offence under section:

193 IPC. ***193 IPC*** - **Section 193 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC)** is the substantive offense provision that prescribes **punishment for giving false evidence** in a judicial proceeding. - Making a false statement under oath, knowing it to be false, makes a person **guilty under Section 193 IPC**, which provides for imprisonment up to 7 years and fine. - This is the operative section under which prosecution is initiated for perjury. *191 IPC* - **Section 191 IPC** defines what constitutes "giving false evidence" - it describes the act but does not prescribe punishment. - While the question describes an act that fits Section 191's definition, the person is charged and found guilty under **Section 193**, which is the punishment provision. - Section 191 is a definitional section, not the offense section itself. *192 IPC* - **Section 192 IPC** deals with **fabricating false evidence**, which involves creating or manufacturing evidence (making false entries in documents, causing circumstances to exist, etc.). - This focuses on the act of *fabricating* rather than directly *giving* a false statement under oath in proceedings. *190 IPC* - **Section 190 IPC** deals with **threat of injury** to induce a person to refrain from applying for protection to a public servant. - This section is entirely unrelated to giving false evidence or making false statements under oath.

Q: Which of the following is not true about sleep -

REM sleep comes earlier than NREM sleep. ***REM sleep comes earlier than NREM sleep*** - This statement is **incorrect** because the sleep cycle typically begins with **NREM (non-rapid eye movement) sleep**, specifically NREM stage 1, before progressing to NREM stages 2 and 3, and then finally entering REM sleep. - NREM sleep accounts for about **75% of total sleep time** and occurs prior to REM sleep in a typical nocturnal sleep episode. *Dreams come in REM sleep* - This statement is **true** as **vivid, memorable dreams** are most commonly associated with **REM sleep**. - During REM sleep, brain activity significantly increases, mimicking the awake state, which facilitates complex dream formation. *REM sleep is also called paradoxical sleep* - This statement is **true** because **REM sleep** is characterized by **high brain activity** (similar to wakefulness) and rapid eye movements, yet the body experiences **muscle atonia**, leading to a state of profound relaxation. - This paradoxical combination of an active brain and a paralyzed body gives it the name **paradoxical sleep**. *Sleep walking comes in NREM sleep* - This statement is **true** as **sleepwalking (somnambulism)** typically occurs during **slow-wave sleep**, which is **NREM stage 3 (deep sleep)**. - During this stage, arousal thresholds are very high, and complex motor behaviors can occur while the individual remains in a sleep state.

Q: In forensic medicine and clinical documentation, what term describes the receptive partner in cases of sexual abuse involving same-sex perpetrators and victims?

Catamite. ***Catamite*** - This term historically refers to the **passive** or **receptive partner** in a same-sex sexual relationship, particularly with an older male. - In forensic contexts, it specifically denotes the person who is the **recipient of sexual penetration** in cases of child sexual abuse by a male perpetrator. *Sodomite* - This term is a broad, often pejorative, historical term primarily used to describe individuals engaging in what was considered **non-procreative sexual acts**, including anal sex. - It does not specifically denote the receptive partner in a sexual abuse context, nor does it inherently imply abuse. *Pederast* - A pederast refers to an adult male who has a **sexual attraction to or engages in sexual acts with a pre-pubescent boy**. - This term specifically identifies the **perpetrator** in such a relationship, not the receptive victim. *Ephebophile* - An ephebophile refers to an adult who is primarily sexually attracted to **adolescents** (typically between ages 11 and 14). - Like pederast, this term describes the **perpetrator** and their sexual preference for a specific age group, not the receptive partner in an abusive situation.

Q: What is the most common site of injury in an underwater blast?

GIT. ***GIT (Correct Answer)*** - The **gastrointestinal tract (GIT)** is the most common site of injury in an underwater blast due to the presence of air-filled organs that are highly susceptible to pressure changes. - The **rupture of hollow viscera** such as the stomach and intestines can lead to severe abdominal pain, hemorrhage, and peritonitis. - Underwater blasts transmit pressure waves efficiently through water, causing maximum damage to air-filled hollow organs. *Lung (Incorrect)* - While **pulmonary barotrauma** can occur, the lungs are less frequently injured compared to the GIT in underwater blasts unless unprotected or subjected to severe pressure. - Lung injuries may manifest as **pneumothorax**, pulmonary contusions, or air embolism. *Tympanic membrane (Incorrect)* - The **tympanic membrane** is the most frequently ruptured structure in blast injuries and highly vulnerable to pressure changes. - However, while common, it is not the most common site of **major organ damage** or life-threatening injury in an underwater blast scenario. *Liver (Incorrect)* - The **liver**, being a solid organ, is less susceptible to direct blast injury from pressure waves compared to air-filled organs. - Liver injury is more likely to result from secondary effects such as blunt trauma from impact against objects or deceleration forces.

Question 1

Testamentary capacity refers to:

Accepted Answer

Ability to make a valid will

Answer

Right to vote

Answer

Ability to give evidence

Answer

Criminal liability

Question 2

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of close-range shotgun wounds?

Accepted Answer

Beveling of bone at exit wound

Answer

Contact wound with stellate laceration

Answer

Abrasion collar around entry wound

Answer

Powder tattooing around entry wound

Question 3

Rectified spirit is NOT used as preservative in case of:

Accepted Answer

Phenol

Answer

Cyanide

Answer

Alphos

Answer

Insecticides

Question 4

In an incised wound, all of the following are true, except:

Accepted Answer

Bleeding is generally less than in lacerations

Answer

Tailing is often present

Answer

It has clean-cut margins

Answer

Length of injury does not correspond with length of blade

Question 5

What is the maximum punishment under Section 304-A IPC for causing death by negligence?

Accepted Answer

2 years

Answer

3 years

Answer

1 year

Answer

4 years

Question 6

Sec. 176 CrPC is related to?

Accepted Answer

Magistrate inquest

Answer

Summons

Answer

Coroner inquest

Answer

Police inquest

Question 7

A witness, who after taking oath, willfully makes a statement which he knows or believes to be false is guilty of offence under section:

Accepted Answer

193 IPC

Answer

192 IPC

Answer

191 IPC

Answer

190 IPC

Question 8

Which of the following is not true about sleep -

Accepted Answer

REM sleep comes earlier than NREM sleep

Answer

Dreams come in REM sleep

Answer

REM sleep is also called paradoxical sleep

Answer

Sleep walking comes in NREM sleep

Question 9

In forensic medicine and clinical documentation, what term describes the receptive partner in cases of sexual abuse involving same-sex perpetrators and victims?

Accepted Answer

Catamite

Answer

Sodomite

Answer

Pederast

Answer

Ephebophile

Question 10

What is the most common site of injury in an underwater blast?

Accepted Answer

GIT

Answer

Lung

Answer

Tympanic membrane

Answer

Liver

NEET-PG 2015

Forensic Medicine

Physiology

Psychiatry

Surgery