NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: During a postmortem examination of a young adult found with a faded tattoo, relatives mentioned that the tattoo was once visible. What is the best method to identify the tattoo?

Illuminate with ultraviolet (UV) light. ***Illuminate with ultraviolet (UV) light*** - **UV light** causes residual tattoo pigments, even faded ones, to **fluoresce**, making them visible again for identification. - This method is particularly effective for **older or faded tattoos** where the pigment has degraded or spread. *Use a spectrophotometer for analysis* - A spectrophotometer is used to measure the **intensity of light** as a function of wavelength, which is useful for **analyzing chemical components or color intensity**. - While it can analyze pigments, it is not the primary or most practical method for merely **identifying the presence and pattern of a faded tattoo** on skin, especially in a postmortem context. *Illuminate with ordinary light* - **Ordinary visible light** is typically insufficient to reveal tattoos that have significantly faded or been subjected to processes that obscure them. - If the tattoo is already faded to the point of being invisible to the naked eye, **ordinary light will not enhance its visibility** as it lacks the specific wavelengths needed to cause fluorescence. *Perform an X-ray examination* - **X-rays** are used to visualize dense structures like **bones and foreign bodies**, not for examining skin or pigments. - Tattoo pigments are generally **not radiopaque** and would not be visible on an X-ray film, rendering this method useless for tattoo identification.

Q: A 50 year old male presents with fever and malaise for 4 months and pain in the knees and ankles. Blood tests are normal apart from a raised ESR. Chest x-ray shows bilateral hilar adenopathy and pulmonary infiltrates most severe in the upper and mid zones. Mantoux test is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Sarcoidosis. ***Sarcoidosis*** - The constellation of **bilateral hilar adenopathy**, pulmonary infiltrates (especially in upper/mid zones), **arthralgia** (knees and ankles), and a **negative Mantoux test** in a patient with unexplained fever and malaise is highly suggestive of sarcoidosis [1]. - A **raised ESR** is a non-specific inflammatory marker often seen in sarcoidosis. *Tuberculosis* - While tuberculosis can cause fever, malaise, pulmonary infiltrates, and elevated ESR, a **negative Mantoux test** makes primary or active tuberculosis less likely in an immunocompetent individual. - **Bilateral hilar adenopathy** is also less typical of primary pulmonary tuberculosis compared to sarcoidosis. *Asbestosis* - This is an **occupational lung disease** caused by asbestos exposure, primarily presenting with **progressive dyspnea** and **restrictive lung disease**. - It characteristically involves the **lower lobes**, causes **pleural plaques**, and is not typically associated with acute arthralgia, fever, or prominent hilar adenopathy. *Berylliosis* - This is another **occupational lung disease** resulting from beryllium exposure, often mimicking sarcoidosis both clinically and pathologically [2]. - However, without a history of **beryllium exposure** and given the classic presentation, sarcoidosis is a more prevalent default diagnosis [2].

Q: Which of the following describes the points marked in the diagram of pelvic measurements?

Diagonal conjugate. ***Diagonal conjugate*** - The image depicts a **bimanual examination** where one hand is inserted vaginally to measure the distance from the **lower border of the pubic symphysis** to the **sacral promontory**. - This measurement directly corresponds to the **diagonal conjugate**, which is a clinically estimated measurement of the pelvic inlet. *Obstetric conjugate measurement* - The **obstetric conjugate** is the smallest anteroposterior diameter through which the fetal head must pass. - It extends from the **middle of the sacral promontory** to the **innermost aspect of the pubic symphysis** and cannot be measured directly by clinical examination. *True conjugate measurement* - The **true conjugate**, also known as the anatomical conjugate, extends from the **sacral promontory** to the **upper border of the pubic symphysis**. - Like the obstetric conjugate, it is not directly palpable and must be estimated from the diagonal conjugate (true conjugate = diagonal conjugate - 1.5 to 2 cm). *Oblique conjugate measurement* - The **oblique conjugate** measures the distance between the sacroiliac joint on one side to the iliopectineal eminence on the opposite side. - This measurement is not typically assessed during a routine pelvic examination as depicted and is more relevant for identifying asymmetric pelvic deformities.

Q: Which of the following actions is NOT associated with tricyclic antidepressants?

MAO inhibition. ***MAO inhibition*** - Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) primarily exert their effects by inhibiting the reuptake of **norepinephrine** and **serotonin**, not by inhibiting monoamine oxidase (MAO). - **MAO inhibitors** are a distinct class of antidepressants with a different mechanism of action and side effect profile. *Anticholinergic action* - Many TCAs have significant **anticholinergic effects**, blocking muscarinic receptors and leading to side effects like dry mouth, constipation, and blurred vision. - These effects contribute to the **adverse event profile** of TCAs, especially in elderly patients. *Block 5-HT or NE reuptake* - The primary mechanism of action of TCAs involves the **inhibition of serotonin (5-HT)** and **norepinephrine (NE) reuptake** into presynaptic neurons. - This action increases the concentration of these neurotransmitters in the **synaptic cleft**, thereby potentiating their effects. *Causes sedation* - TCAs frequently cause **sedation**, particularly the more histaminergic ones (e.g., amitriptyline, doxepin), due to their **histamine H1 receptor antagonism**. - This side effect can be beneficial for patients with insomnia but can be problematic for daytime functioning.

Q: In which condition is sex reassignment surgery typically performed?

Gender dysphoria. ***Gender dysphoria*** - **Sex reassignment surgery** is primarily performed as part of the treatment for **gender dysphoria**, a condition where there is a marked incongruence between an individual's experienced/expressed gender and their assigned sex. - The surgery aims to align the individual's physical appearance with their **gender identity**, alleviating distress and improving quality of life. *Premature ejaculation* - This condition involves consistent or recurrent ejaculation with minimal sexual stimulation before, during, or shortly after penetration and before the person wishes it. - Treatment typically includes behavioral therapies, medication (e.g., SSRIs), and psychological counseling, not surgical intervention. *Erectile dysfunction* - **Erectile dysfunction** is the inability to achieve or maintain an erection firm enough for satisfactory sexual intercourse. - Treatments range from lifestyle changes and oral medications (e.g., PDE5 inhibitors) to vacuum devices, penile injections, and in some cases, penile implants, but not sex reassignment surgery. *Orgasmic dysfunction* - This condition refers to persistent or recurrent delay in, or absence of, orgasm following a normal phase of sexual excitement. - Management often involves psychological counseling, addressing underlying medical conditions, or adjusting medications; it does not involve sex reassignment surgery.

Q: Loosening of association is an example of

Formal thought disorder. ***Formal thought disorder*** - **Loosening of association** is a classic symptom of **formal thought disorder**, where thoughts become disconnected, fragmented, or illogical. - It reflects a disturbance in the **structure and flow of thought**, leading to disorganized speech. *Schneider's first symptoms* - **Schneider's first-rank symptoms** are specific psychotic experiences (e.g., thought insertion, auditory hallucinations commenting on actions) that are highly suggestive of schizophrenia but do not include loosening of association as a primary symptom. - While sometimes seen in schizophrenia, loosening of association is a broader concept of thought disorganization rather than a first-rank symptom itself. *Perseveration* - **Perseveration** involves the **inappropriate repetition of words, phrases, or ideas**, even when the topic has changed. - While a form of thought disorder, it is distinct from the general disconnectedness seen in loosening of association. *Concrete thinking* - **Concrete thinking** is the **inability to comprehend abstract concepts or metaphors**, interpreting them literally. - This is a disorder of **thought content or style**, but not directly related to the disorganized flow of thought characterized by loosening of association.

Q: What is a common medical treatment for sexual paraphilias?

Anti-androgens. ***Anti-androgens*** - **Anti-androgens are the established first-line pharmacological treatment** for paraphilias when medication is indicated. - Medications like **medroxyprogesterone acetate (MPA)** and **cyproterone acetate (CPA)** reduce testosterone levels, thereby reducing sexual drive and paraphilic urges. - They are particularly effective in **reducing the frequency and intensity of deviant sexual fantasies and behaviors**. - Used in combination with psychotherapy for comprehensive management of paraphilic disorders. *SSRIs* - May have a role as **adjunctive therapy** for compulsive sexual behaviors or when comorbid OCD, depression, or anxiety is present. - They can help reduce obsessive thoughts but are **not considered the primary treatment** for paraphilias themselves. - More useful for comorbid mood and anxiety symptoms than for core paraphilic symptoms. *Benzodiazepines* - Primarily used for **anxiety and insomnia** due to their sedative effects. - They do not address sexual urges or paraphilic behaviors and have no role in paraphilia treatment. *Opioids* - Prescribed for **pain management** and associated with risk of dependence. - They have **no established role** in the treatment of sexual paraphilias.

Q: What is the primary cause of death in Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome?

None of the options. ***None of the options*** - The **primary cause of death** in Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is **renal failure secondary to rhabdomyolysis**, which is not listed among the options. - **Severe muscle rigidity** in NMS leads to massive muscle breakdown (rhabdomyolysis) → release of myoglobin → myoglobinuria → acute tubular necrosis → acute renal failure. - Mortality in NMS ranges from **10-20%**, with renal complications being the leading cause of death. - Other significant causes include **cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, DIC**, and **respiratory complications**, but renal failure remains the most common fatal outcome. *Respiratory failure* - While respiratory complications occur in NMS (aspiration pneumonia, respiratory muscle rigidity), this is **not the primary cause of death**. - Respiratory failure can contribute to mortality but is typically **secondary** to other complications or occurs less frequently than renal failure as the direct cause. - It is a serious complication but not the most common fatal outcome. *Liver failure* - **Hepatotoxicity** is not a characteristic feature or primary cause of death in NMS. - Though elevated liver enzymes may occur, liver failure is **not a typical cause of mortality** in NMS. - The pathophysiology centers on **dopamine blockade**, autonomic instability, and muscle breakdown, not hepatic dysfunction. *Drug toxicity* - NMS is an **idiosyncratic reaction** to dopamine antagonists (typical and atypical antipsychotics), not a dose-dependent toxic effect. - Death results from the **physiological complications of the syndrome** (renal failure, cardiovascular collapse, hyperthermia), not from direct drug toxicity or overdose. - The mechanism is related to dopamine receptor blockade and subsequent dysregulation, not toxic poisoning.

Q: What type of disorder is Tourette syndrome?

Tic disorder. ***Tic disorder*** - Tourette syndrome is defined by the presence of both **multiple motor tics** and at least one **vocal tic** for more than one year. - Tics are sudden, rapid, recurrent, non-rhythmic motor movements or vocalizations. - Classified under **Neurodevelopmental Disorders** in DSM-5 and **Tic disorders** in ICD-11. *Intellectual disability* - Intellectual disability (previously termed mental retardation) is characterized by significant limitations both in **intellectual functioning** and in **adaptive behavior**. - While co-occurring conditions are common with Tourette syndrome, intellectual disability is **not a defining characteristic** of the syndrome itself. - Tourette syndrome is a **tic disorder**, not an intellectual disability. *Seizure disorder* - Seizure disorders (**epilepsy**) are neurological conditions characterized by recurrent, unprovoked seizures, which are abnormal electrical activities in the brain. - Tics and seizures are **distinct neurological phenomena** with different pathophysiology. - Tourette syndrome is **not a type of seizure disorder**, though they may occasionally co-occur. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because Tourette syndrome is indeed a well-defined type of **tic disorder**, as recognized by DSM-5 and ICD-11 diagnostic criteria. - The correct classification is clearly established in psychiatric nosology.

Q: Investigation of choice for acute intracerebral hemorrhage is -

NCCT. ***NCCT*** - **Non-contrast Computed Tomography (NCCT)** is the investigation of choice for acute intracerebral hemorrhage because it can **rapidly and reliably detect acute blood** within the brain parenchyma. - Acute hemorrhage appears as a **hyperdense (bright) lesion** on NCCT, allowing for quick diagnosis and management vital in emergency settings. *MRI* - While MRI can detect hemorrhage, its sensitivity for **acute hemorrhage** can be variable, and it is **less readily available** and takes longer to perform than NCCT. - MRI is generally preferred for subacute or chronic hemorrhage, or to investigate the **underlying cause** of the bleed (e.g., tumor, vascular malformation). *PET scan* - **Positron Emission Tomography (PET) scan** primarily measures **metabolic activity** and blood flow within the brain. - It is **not suitable for detecting acute bleeding** and is typically used for diagnosing conditions like tumors, epilepsy, or neurodegenerative diseases. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **NCCT** is indeed the gold standard for diagnosing acute intracerebral hemorrhage.

Question 1

During a postmortem examination of a young adult found with a faded tattoo, relatives mentioned that the tattoo was once visible. What is the best method to identify the tattoo?

Accepted Answer

Illuminate with ultraviolet (UV) light

Answer

Use a spectrophotometer for analysis

Answer

Illuminate with ordinary light

Answer

Perform an X-ray examination

Question 2

A 50 year old male presents with fever and malaise for 4 months and pain in the knees and ankles. Blood tests are normal apart from a raised ESR. Chest x-ray shows bilateral hilar adenopathy and pulmonary infiltrates most severe in the upper and mid zones. Mantoux test is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Sarcoidosis

Answer

Tuberculosis

Answer

Asbestosis

Answer

Berylliosis

Question 3

Which of the following describes the points marked in the diagram of pelvic measurements?

Accepted Answer

Diagonal conjugate

Answer

Obstetric conjugate measurement

Answer

True conjugate measurement

Answer

Oblique conjugate measurement

Question 4

Which of the following actions is NOT associated with tricyclic antidepressants?

Accepted Answer

MAO inhibition

Answer

Block 5-HT or NE reuptake

Answer

Anticholinergic action

Answer

Causes sedation

Question 5

In which condition is sex reassignment surgery typically performed?

Accepted Answer

Gender dysphoria

Answer

Premature ejaculation

Answer

Erectile dysfunction

Answer

Orgasmic dysfunction

Question 6

Loosening of association is an example of

Accepted Answer

Formal thought disorder

Answer

Concrete thinking

Answer

Schneider's first symptoms

Answer

Perseveration

Question 7

What is a common medical treatment for sexual paraphilias?

Accepted Answer

Anti-androgens

Answer

Benzodiazepines

Answer

SSRIs

Answer

Opioids

Question 8

What is the primary cause of death in Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome?

Accepted Answer

None of the options

Answer

Respiratory failure

Answer

Liver failure

Answer

Drug toxicity

Question 9

What type of disorder is Tourette syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Tic disorder

Answer

Intellectual disability

Answer

Seizure disorder

Answer

None of the options

Question 10

Investigation of choice for acute intracerebral hemorrhage is -

Accepted Answer

NCCT

Answer

MRI

Answer

PET scan

Answer

None of the options

NEET-PG 2015

Forensic Medicine

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pharmacology

Psychiatry

Radiology