NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: A 50 year old male presents with fever and malaise for 4 months and pain in the knees and ankles. Blood tests are normal apart from a raised ESR. Chest x-ray shows bilateral hilar adenopathy and pulmonary infiltrates most severe in the upper and mid zones. Mantoux test is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Sarcoidosis. ***Sarcoidosis*** - The constellation of **bilateral hilar adenopathy**, pulmonary infiltrates (especially in upper/mid zones), **arthralgia** (knees and ankles), and a **negative Mantoux test** in a patient with unexplained fever and malaise is highly suggestive of sarcoidosis [1]. - A **raised ESR** is a non-specific inflammatory marker often seen in sarcoidosis. *Tuberculosis* - While tuberculosis can cause fever, malaise, pulmonary infiltrates, and elevated ESR, a **negative Mantoux test** makes primary or active tuberculosis less likely in an immunocompetent individual. - **Bilateral hilar adenopathy** is also less typical of primary pulmonary tuberculosis compared to sarcoidosis. *Asbestosis* - This is an **occupational lung disease** caused by asbestos exposure, primarily presenting with **progressive dyspnea** and **restrictive lung disease**. - It characteristically involves the **lower lobes**, causes **pleural plaques**, and is not typically associated with acute arthralgia, fever, or prominent hilar adenopathy. *Berylliosis* - This is another **occupational lung disease** resulting from beryllium exposure, often mimicking sarcoidosis both clinically and pathologically [2]. - However, without a history of **beryllium exposure** and given the classic presentation, sarcoidosis is a more prevalent default diagnosis [2].

Q: Which of the following actions is NOT associated with tricyclic antidepressants?

MAO inhibition. ***MAO inhibition*** - Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) primarily exert their effects by inhibiting the reuptake of **norepinephrine** and **serotonin**, not by inhibiting monoamine oxidase (MAO). - **MAO inhibitors** are a distinct class of antidepressants with a different mechanism of action and side effect profile. *Anticholinergic action* - Many TCAs have significant **anticholinergic effects**, blocking muscarinic receptors and leading to side effects like dry mouth, constipation, and blurred vision. - These effects contribute to the **adverse event profile** of TCAs, especially in elderly patients. *Block 5-HT or NE reuptake* - The primary mechanism of action of TCAs involves the **inhibition of serotonin (5-HT)** and **norepinephrine (NE) reuptake** into presynaptic neurons. - This action increases the concentration of these neurotransmitters in the **synaptic cleft**, thereby potentiating their effects. *Causes sedation* - TCAs frequently cause **sedation**, particularly the more histaminergic ones (e.g., amitriptyline, doxepin), due to their **histamine H1 receptor antagonism**. - This side effect can be beneficial for patients with insomnia but can be problematic for daytime functioning.

Q: Which of the following conditions is NOT typically associated with increased REM latency?

Narcolepsy. ***Narcolepsy*** - **Narcolepsy** is characterized by pathologically **decreased REM latency**, not increased. - Patients typically enter REM sleep within **15 minutes** of sleep onset (normal is 60-90 minutes). - **Sleep-onset REM periods (SOREMPs)** are a diagnostic hallmark of narcolepsy, seen on multiple sleep latency testing (MSLT). - Since narcolepsy is associated with *decreased* REM latency, it is definitively **NOT associated with increased REM latency**, making it the correct answer to this negation question. *First night effect* - The **first-night effect** refers to sleep disruption and increased REM latency during the first night of polysomnography in an unfamiliar environment. - This is a well-documented phenomenon that **increases REM latency** due to environmental stress and arousal. *SSRIs* - **Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)** significantly suppress REM sleep, leading to **increased REM latency** and decreased total REM sleep time. - This effect is mediated by increased serotonin, which inhibits cholinergic neurons involved in REM sleep generation. - SSRIs can increase REM latency by 30-90 minutes beyond normal values. *Restless leg syndrome* - **Restless leg syndrome (RLS)** primarily causes difficulty initiating sleep and sleep fragmentation due to uncomfortable leg sensations. - While RLS disrupts sleep architecture, its effect on REM latency is **variable and inconsistent** - some studies show minimal impact, while chronic sleep deprivation from RLS may actually decrease REM latency during rebound sleep. - However, RLS is not as clearly and consistently dissociated from increased REM latency as narcolepsy is.

Q: What is the primary cause of death in Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome?

None of the options. ***None of the options*** - The **primary cause of death** in Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is **renal failure secondary to rhabdomyolysis**, which is not listed among the options. - **Severe muscle rigidity** in NMS leads to massive muscle breakdown (rhabdomyolysis) → release of myoglobin → myoglobinuria → acute tubular necrosis → acute renal failure. - Mortality in NMS ranges from **10-20%**, with renal complications being the leading cause of death. - Other significant causes include **cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, DIC**, and **respiratory complications**, but renal failure remains the most common fatal outcome. *Respiratory failure* - While respiratory complications occur in NMS (aspiration pneumonia, respiratory muscle rigidity), this is **not the primary cause of death**. - Respiratory failure can contribute to mortality but is typically **secondary** to other complications or occurs less frequently than renal failure as the direct cause. - It is a serious complication but not the most common fatal outcome. *Liver failure* - **Hepatotoxicity** is not a characteristic feature or primary cause of death in NMS. - Though elevated liver enzymes may occur, liver failure is **not a typical cause of mortality** in NMS. - The pathophysiology centers on **dopamine blockade**, autonomic instability, and muscle breakdown, not hepatic dysfunction. *Drug toxicity* - NMS is an **idiosyncratic reaction** to dopamine antagonists (typical and atypical antipsychotics), not a dose-dependent toxic effect. - Death results from the **physiological complications of the syndrome** (renal failure, cardiovascular collapse, hyperthermia), not from direct drug toxicity or overdose. - The mechanism is related to dopamine receptor blockade and subsequent dysregulation, not toxic poisoning.

Q: Which of the following is a common feature associated with mania?

Flights of ideas. ***Flights of ideas*** - A **flight of ideas** is characterized by a rapid, continuous, pressured flow of talk with abrupt changes from one topic to another, usually based on understandable associations or plays on words, which is a hallmark feature of **mania**. - This symptom reflects the accelerated thinking and heightened energy typical of a **manic episode**. *Neologism* - **Neologisms** are newly coined words or phrases, often without meaning to others, which are more commonly associated with thought disorders like **schizophrenia**. - While patients with mania can have pressured speech, the formation of nonsensical new words is not a primary or common feature of the condition. *Perseveration* - **Perseveration** involves the persistent repetition of a word, phrase, or gesture despite the absence of a stimulus or the appropriateness of the repetition, often seen in **cognitive disorders** or **schizophrenia**. - It differs from the rapidly shifting topics in a flight of ideas, where new thoughts are constantly being generated rather than a single thought being repeated. *Echolalia* - **Echolalia** is the automatic repetition of vocalizations made by another person, which is mainly observed in conditions such as **autism spectrum disorder** or **Tourette's syndrome**. - This symptom involves imitation rather than the spontaneous generation of accelerated speech and thoughts characteristic of mania.

Q: The site of lesion in Korsakoff's psychosis is

Mammillary body. ***Mammillary body*** - **Korsakoff's psychosis** is a neurocognitive disorder characterized by severe **memory impairment**, confabulation, and apathy, primarily due to **thiamine deficiency**. - The disease involves damage to several brain areas, most notably the **mammillary bodies** and the dorsal medial nucleus of the thalamus, which are critical for memory formation. *Frontal lobe* - While frontal lobe dysfunction can lead to cognitive deficits, the **primary lesion** in Korsakoff's psychosis is not typically located here. - Damage to the frontal lobe is more commonly associated with executive dysfunction, personality changes, and disinhibition, rather than the profound amnesia seen in Korsakoff's. *Cingulate gyrus* - The cingulate gyrus plays a role in emotion, learning, and memory, but it is **not considered the primary site of lesion** in Korsakoff's psychosis. - Although it can be affected, lesions in the mammillary bodies are more directly linked to the characteristic memory deficits. *Corpus striatum* - The corpus striatum is involved in motor control and habit formation, and its damage is associated with movement disorders like **Parkinson's or Huntington's disease**. - This area is **not the primary site of pathology** in Korsakoff's psychosis, which is fundamentally a memory disorder.

Q: In which condition is sex reassignment surgery typically performed?

Gender dysphoria. ***Gender dysphoria*** - **Sex reassignment surgery** is primarily performed as part of the treatment for **gender dysphoria**, a condition where there is a marked incongruence between an individual's experienced/expressed gender and their assigned sex. - The surgery aims to align the individual's physical appearance with their **gender identity**, alleviating distress and improving quality of life. *Premature ejaculation* - This condition involves consistent or recurrent ejaculation with minimal sexual stimulation before, during, or shortly after penetration and before the person wishes it. - Treatment typically includes behavioral therapies, medication (e.g., SSRIs), and psychological counseling, not surgical intervention. *Erectile dysfunction* - **Erectile dysfunction** is the inability to achieve or maintain an erection firm enough for satisfactory sexual intercourse. - Treatments range from lifestyle changes and oral medications (e.g., PDE5 inhibitors) to vacuum devices, penile injections, and in some cases, penile implants, but not sex reassignment surgery. *Orgasmic dysfunction* - This condition refers to persistent or recurrent delay in, or absence of, orgasm following a normal phase of sexual excitement. - Management often involves psychological counseling, addressing underlying medical conditions, or adjusting medications; it does not involve sex reassignment surgery.

Q: Which eating disorder is characterized by episodes of binge eating while maintaining a normal weight?

Bulimia nervosa. ***Bulimia nervosa*** - This disorder is characterized by recurrent episodes of **binge eating** followed by compensatory behaviors such as self-induced vomiting, misuse of laxatives, or excessive exercise, while the individual generally maintains a **normal body weight**. - The key differentiator from anorexia nervosa is the **normal weight** and the cyclical pattern of binging and compensatory behaviors. - According to **DSM-5 criteria**, bulimia nervosa requires both binge eating episodes and inappropriate compensatory behaviors occurring at least once weekly for 3 months. *Anorexia nervosa* - This eating disorder is primarily characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight, leading to **severe restriction of food intake** and significantly **low body weight**. - Individuals with anorexia nervosa do not maintain a normal weight; rather, their weight is often **below minimally normal** (BMI < 18.5 kg/m² in adults). *Binge eating disorder* - This disorder involves recurrent episodes of **binge eating**, defined as consuming an unusually large amount of food in a short period with a sense of loss of control, but it does **not involve recurrent compensatory behaviors** like purging. - Individuals with binge eating disorder are often **overweight or obese**, contrasting with the normal weight seen in bulimia nervosa. *Night eating syndrome* - This disorder is characterized by recurrent episodes of **nighttime eating** (consuming food after evening meal or upon awakening from sleep) with full awareness. - Unlike bulimia nervosa, it does **not involve binge eating** in the classic sense, and there are **no compensatory behaviors** like purging or excessive exercise. - Individuals may maintain normal weight but the eating pattern is distinctly different from the binge-purge cycle.

Q: In which of the following conditions is behavioral therapy most commonly utilized?

Agoraphobia. ***Agoraphobia*** - **Behavioral therapy**, particularly **exposure therapy**, is the **gold standard and first-line treatment** for agoraphobia. - It involves **systematic desensitization** and gradual exposure to feared situations (e.g., crowded places, public transport, open spaces). - This approach directly reduces **avoidance behaviors** and anxiety responses, making it the most commonly utilized behavioral intervention among these conditions. *Schizophrenia* - While behavioral interventions can be part of a comprehensive treatment plan, **pharmacotherapy** (antipsychotics) is the cornerstone for managing positive and negative symptoms. - Behavioral approaches often focus on **social skills training** and vocational rehabilitation, not primary symptom reduction. *Delirium* - The primary management for delirium involves identifying and treating the **underlying medical cause** and providing supportive care. - Behavioral therapy is generally not indicated as this condition is an **acute organic brain syndrome** requiring medical management. *Neurotic depression* - This term is largely outdated; current diagnostic manuals use terms like **persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia)** or **major depressive disorder**. - While behavioral activation is a component of CBT for depression, the primary treatments are **cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT)** and/or **pharmacotherapy** (antidepressants), rather than purely behavioral therapy.

Question 1

A 50 year old male presents with fever and malaise for 4 months and pain in the knees and ankles. Blood tests are normal apart from a raised ESR. Chest x-ray shows bilateral hilar adenopathy and pulmonary infiltrates most severe in the upper and mid zones. Mantoux test is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Sarcoidosis

Answer

Tuberculosis

Answer

Asbestosis

Answer

Berylliosis

Question 2

Which of the following actions is NOT associated with tricyclic antidepressants?

Accepted Answer

MAO inhibition

Answer

Block 5-HT or NE reuptake

Answer

Anticholinergic action

Answer

Causes sedation

Question 3

Which of the following conditions is NOT typically associated with increased REM latency?

Accepted Answer

Narcolepsy

Answer

First night effect

Answer

SSRIs

Answer

Restless leg syndrome

Question 4

A 25-year-old male believes that his penis is decreasing in size every day and that it will eventually disappear, leading to his death. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Delusional Disorder

Answer

Somatic Symptom Disorder

Answer

Illness Anxiety Disorder

Answer

Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

Question 5

What is the primary cause of death in Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome?

Accepted Answer

None of the options

Answer

Respiratory failure

Answer

Liver failure

Answer

Drug toxicity

Question 6

Which of the following is a common feature associated with mania?

Accepted Answer

Flights of ideas

Answer

Neologism

Answer

Perseveration

Answer

Echolalia

Question 7

The site of lesion in Korsakoff's psychosis is

Accepted Answer

Mammillary body

Answer

Frontal lobe

Answer

Cingulate gyrus

Answer

Corpus striatum

Question 8

In which condition is sex reassignment surgery typically performed?

Accepted Answer

Gender dysphoria

Answer

Premature ejaculation

Answer

Erectile dysfunction

Answer

Orgasmic dysfunction

Question 9

Which eating disorder is characterized by episodes of binge eating while maintaining a normal weight?

Accepted Answer

Bulimia nervosa

Answer

Anorexia nervosa

Answer

Binge eating disorder

Answer

Night eating syndrome

Question 10

In which of the following conditions is behavioral therapy most commonly utilized?

Accepted Answer

Agoraphobia

Answer

Schizophrenia

Answer

Delirium

Answer

Neurotic depression

NEET-PG 2015

Internal Medicine

Pharmacology

Psychiatry