Anatomy
1 questionsTraumatic optic neuropathy due to closed head trauma commonly affects which part of the optic nerve?
NEET-PG 2015 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1281: Traumatic optic neuropathy due to closed head trauma commonly affects which part of the optic nerve?
- A. Optic canal (Correct Answer)
- B. Intraocular part
- C. Intracranial part
- D. Optic tract
Explanation: ***Optic canal*** - The **optic nerve** is highly susceptible to injury within the **optic canal** due to its tight anatomical confines and the close proximity of the optic nerve to rigid bone. - Trauma to this region can lead to direct compression, shearing injury, or ischemia from damage to surrounding vasculature, resulting in significant visual impairment. *Intra ocular part* - The intraocular part of the optic nerve, including the **optic disc**, is typically protected by the globe and orbit against blunt trauma. - Direct intraocular trauma, such as a penetrating injury, would be required to significantly affect this segment, which is not usually the cause in closed head trauma. *Intracranial part* - The intracranial part of the optic nerve is relatively mobile within the cerebrospinal fluid and is less prone to direct compression or shearing forces from closed head trauma compared to the optic canal. - While it can be affected by diffuse axonal injury or mass effects within the cranium, it is not the most commonly affected segment for traumatic optic neuropathy in closed head injuries. *Optic tract* - The **optic tract** lies posterior to the optic chiasm and is part of the central nervous system pathways for vision, not the optic nerve itself. - Injuries to the optic tract are more likely to cause homonymous hemianopia rather than the profound unilateral vision loss characteristic of traumatic optic neuropathy, and are generally less vulnerable to direct mechanical trauma from closed head injury.
Biochemistry
1 questionsWhich of these is not a part of extracellular matrix:
NEET-PG 2015 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1281: Which of these is not a part of extracellular matrix:
- A. Collagen
- B. Laminin
- C. Fibronectin
- D. Integrins (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Integrins*** - Integrins are **transmembrane receptors** on the cell surface that facilitate cell-extracellular matrix (ECM) adhesion and cell-cell adhesion. - They are part of the cell membrane, **not** an extracellular component. *Laminin* - **Laminin** is a major protein component of the **basal lamina**, a specialized extracellular matrix that underlies epithelial cells. - It plays a crucial role in cell adhesion, differentiation, and migration within the ECM. *Fibronectin* - **Fibronectin** is a large glycoprotein present in the **extracellular matrix** and in soluble form in blood plasma. - It mediates cell adhesion to the ECM by binding to integrins and various ECM components like collagen and proteoglycans. *Collagen* - **Collagen** is the most abundant protein in the human body and a primary structural component of the **extracellular matrix**. - It provides tensile strength and structural integrity to tissues like skin, bone, tendons, and cartilage.
Dermatology
2 questionsWhat do the Lines of Blaschko represent?
All of the following are part of the treatment of scabies except?
NEET-PG 2015 - Dermatology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1281: What do the Lines of Blaschko represent?
- A. Patterns along lymphatics
- B. Patterns along blood vessels
- C. Patterns along nerves
- D. Patterns of cell migration (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Patterns of cell migration*** - The **Lines of Blaschko** are invisible patterns in the skin reflecting the **movement and proliferation of cells** during embryonic development. - They become apparent in certain genetic conditions or mosaics when affected cells form streaks or swirls following these lines. *Patterns along lymphatics* - **Lymphatic patterns** refer to the distribution of the lymphatic system, which drains interstitial fluid and immune cells. - Skin conditions involving lymphatics often present as **lymphedema** or **lymphangitis**, which do not typically follow Blaschko's lines. *Patterns along blood vessels* - **Vascular patterns** describe the distribution of blood vessels in the skin, which can be affected in conditions like **livedo reticularis** or **vasculitis**. - These are distinct from Blaschko's lines, which are embryological in origin and not directly related to vascular anatomy. *Patterns along nerves* - **Nerve patterns** in the skin, such as **dermatomes**, correspond to the sensory innervation supplied by spinal nerves. - While some skin conditions can follow dermatomal distributions (e.g., **herpes zoster**), these are distinct from the embryological migration patterns represented by Blaschko's lines.
Question 1282: All of the following are part of the treatment of scabies except?
- A. Topical Permethrin
- B. Oral antihistamines
- C. Oral ivermectin
- D. Long term oral steroids (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Long term oral steroids*** - **Long-term oral steroids** are generally avoided in scabies treatment as they can **suppress the immune system**, potentially worsening the infestation. - While steroids might offer temporary relief from itching, they do not address the underlying parasitic cause and can lead to various **side effects** with prolonged use. *Topical Permethrin* - **Topical permethrin** 5% cream is a **first-line treatment** for scabies, highly effective against the *Sarcoptes scabiei* mite. - It is typically applied to the entire body from the neck down, left on for 8-14 hours, and then washed off. *Oral ivermectin* - **Oral ivermectin** is an alternative treatment, particularly useful for **crusted scabies**, widespread infestations, or in cases where topical treatments are difficult to administer. - It acts by disrupting the nervous system of the mites, leading to their death. *Oral antihistamines* - **Oral antihistamines** are used to manage the **intense pruritus** (itching) associated with scabies. - They do not kill the mites but provide symptomatic relief, improving patient comfort.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsA 50 year old male presents with fever and malaise for 4 months and pain in the knees and ankles. Blood tests are normal apart from a raised ESR. Chest x-ray shows bilateral hilar adenopathy and pulmonary infiltrates most severe in the upper and mid zones. Mantoux test is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1281: A 50 year old male presents with fever and malaise for 4 months and pain in the knees and ankles. Blood tests are normal apart from a raised ESR. Chest x-ray shows bilateral hilar adenopathy and pulmonary infiltrates most severe in the upper and mid zones. Mantoux test is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Tuberculosis
- B. Sarcoidosis (Correct Answer)
- C. Asbestosis
- D. Berylliosis
Explanation: ***Sarcoidosis*** - The constellation of **bilateral hilar adenopathy**, pulmonary infiltrates (especially in upper/mid zones), **arthralgia** (knees and ankles), and a **negative Mantoux test** in a patient with unexplained fever and malaise is highly suggestive of sarcoidosis [1]. - A **raised ESR** is a non-specific inflammatory marker often seen in sarcoidosis. *Tuberculosis* - While tuberculosis can cause fever, malaise, pulmonary infiltrates, and elevated ESR, a **negative Mantoux test** makes primary or active tuberculosis less likely in an immunocompetent individual. - **Bilateral hilar adenopathy** is also less typical of primary pulmonary tuberculosis compared to sarcoidosis. *Asbestosis* - This is an **occupational lung disease** caused by asbestos exposure, primarily presenting with **progressive dyspnea** and **restrictive lung disease**. - It characteristically involves the **lower lobes**, causes **pleural plaques**, and is not typically associated with acute arthralgia, fever, or prominent hilar adenopathy. *Berylliosis* - This is another **occupational lung disease** resulting from beryllium exposure, often mimicking sarcoidosis both clinically and pathologically [2]. - However, without a history of **beryllium exposure** and given the classic presentation, sarcoidosis is a more prevalent default diagnosis [2].
Pharmacology
1 questionsWhich of the following drugs is an alpha 2 agonist?
NEET-PG 2015 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1281: Which of the following drugs is an alpha 2 agonist?
- A. Apraclonidine (Correct Answer)
- B. Timolol
- C. PG analogues
- D. Verapamil
Explanation: ***Apraclonidine*** - **Apraclonidine** is a synthetic **alpha-2 adrenergic agonist** that reduces aqueous humor production and increases uveoscleral outflow, thereby lowering intraocular pressure. - It is primarily used for the short-term treatment of **open-angle glaucoma** or ocular hypertension. *Timolol* - **Timolol** is a **non-selective beta-adrenergic blocker** that reduces aqueous humor production, leading to a decrease in intraocular pressure. - It does not act on alpha-2 receptors, distinguishing it from apraclonidine. *PG analogues* - **Prostaglandin analogues** (PG analogues) such as latanoprost, bimatoprost, and travoprost are primarily used to treat glaucoma by **increasing uveoscleral outflow** of aqueous humor. - They act on **prostaglandin F2α receptors**, not alpha-2 adrenergic receptors. *Verapamil* - **Verapamil** is a **calcium channel blocker** primarily used to treat hypertension, angina, and arrhythmias. - It acts by blocking calcium channels in vascular smooth muscle and the heart, and does not have significant alpha-2 adrenergic agonist activity.
Psychiatry
2 questionsLoosening of association is an example of
What is the PRIMARY psychological cause of oppositional behavior in young children?
NEET-PG 2015 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1281: Loosening of association is an example of
- A. Concrete thinking
- B. Formal thought disorder (Correct Answer)
- C. Schneider's first symptoms
- D. Perseveration
Explanation: ***Formal thought disorder*** - **Loosening of association** is a classic symptom of **formal thought disorder**, where thoughts become disconnected, fragmented, or illogical. - It reflects a disturbance in the **structure and flow of thought**, leading to disorganized speech. *Schneider's first symptoms* - **Schneider's first-rank symptoms** are specific psychotic experiences (e.g., thought insertion, auditory hallucinations commenting on actions) that are highly suggestive of schizophrenia but do not include loosening of association as a primary symptom. - While sometimes seen in schizophrenia, loosening of association is a broader concept of thought disorganization rather than a first-rank symptom itself. *Perseveration* - **Perseveration** involves the **inappropriate repetition of words, phrases, or ideas**, even when the topic has changed. - While a form of thought disorder, it is distinct from the general disconnectedness seen in loosening of association. *Concrete thinking* - **Concrete thinking** is the **inability to comprehend abstract concepts or metaphors**, interpreting them literally. - This is a disorder of **thought content or style**, but not directly related to the disorganized flow of thought characterized by loosening of association.
Question 1282: What is the PRIMARY psychological cause of oppositional behavior in young children?
- A. Emotional distress (Correct Answer)
- B. Genetic predisposition
- C. Intellectual disability
- D. Neurological disorder
Explanation: ***Emotional distress*** - **Emotional distress**, such as anxiety, fear, sadness, or frustration, is a primary driver of oppositional behavior as children may lack the verbal or emotional regulation skills to express these feelings constructively. - Children often express their internal emotional struggles through externalizing behaviors like opposition, defiance, and irritability as a form of **maladaptive coping**. *Intellectual disability* - While children with an **intellectual disability** may exhibit oppositional behavior, it is not the primary psychological cause across all young children. - In such cases, oppositional behaviors might stem from difficulties understanding expectations, communication challenges, or a lack of coping strategies rather than being the direct psychological root of the opposition itself. *Neurological disorder* - Certain **neurological disorders** (e.g., ADHD) can contribute to behaviors that appear oppositional due to challenges with impulsivity or attention, but they are not the primary psychological cause of oppositional behavior in general. - The oppositional behavior in these cases is more a consequence of the unique cognitive and executive function challenges associated with the disorder, rather than a direct psychological state of distress. *Genetic predisposition* - **Genetic predisposition** can influence temperament and vulnerability to certain mental health conditions, thereby indirectly contributing to oppositional behavior. - However, genetics do not directly cause oppositional behavior; rather, they interact with environmental factors and a child's psychological state to either mitigate or exacerbate such behaviors.
Surgery
2 questionsWhich of the following neck dissections is considered the most conservative?
Supraomohyoid dissection is a type of?
NEET-PG 2015 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1281: Which of the following neck dissections is considered the most conservative?
- A. Supraomohyoid neck dissection (Correct Answer)
- B. Radical neck dissection
- C. Modified radical neck dissection
- D. All options are conservative.
Explanation: ***Supraomohyoid neck dissection*** - This dissection is highly **selective**, removing only lymph nodes from **levels I, II, and III**, which are the most superficial and anterior groups in the neck. - It preserves the **internal jugular vein**, spinal accessory nerve, and sternocleidomastoid muscle, minimizing functional and cosmetic morbidity. *Radical neck dissection* - This is the **most extensive** neck dissection, involving the removal of all lymph node levels (I-V), the **internal jugular vein**, the **spinal accessory nerve**, and the **sternocleidomastoid muscle**. - It is reserved for advanced cancers with extensive nodal involvement due to its significant associated morbidity and functional deficits. *Modified radical neck dissection* - This dissection removes lymph nodes in levels I-V but **spares at least one non-lymphatic structure**, such as the spinal accessory nerve, internal jugular vein, or sternocleidomastoid muscle. - While less radical than a full radical neck dissection, it is still more extensive than a supraomohyoid dissection as it targets a broader range of lymph node levels. *All options are conservative.* - This statement is incorrect because **radical neck dissection** is by definition the most extensive and least conservative surgical approach to neck nodal disease. - The different types of neck dissections represent a spectrum of extensiveness, with supraomohyoid being the most selective and conservative.
Question 1282: Supraomohyoid dissection is a type of?
- A. Selective neck dissection (Correct Answer)
- B. Modified radical neck dissection
- C. Radical neck dissection
- D. Posterolateral dissection
Explanation: ***Selective neck dissection*** - **Supraomohyoid dissection** specifically refers to a type of selective neck dissection, characterized by the removal of lymph node levels **I, II, and III**. - This procedure is commonly performed for early-stage oral cavity cancers due to their typical lymphatic spread patterns. *Modified radical neck dissection* - This dissection preserves one or more **non-lymphatic structures** (e.g., sternocleidomastoid muscle, internal jugular vein, spinal accessory nerve) that are typically removed in a radical neck dissection. - It involves a broader range of lymph node levels (typically **I-V**) compared to a supraomohyoid dissection. *Radical neck dissection* - This is a more extensive procedure involving the removal of all lymph node groups (levels **I-V**), along with the **sternocleidomastoid muscle**, **internal jugular vein**, and **spinal accessory nerve**. - It is reserved for advanced neck disease due to its significant morbidity. *Posterolateral dissection* - **Posterolateral neck dissection** is a term not commonly used within the standard classification of neck dissections (radical, modified radical, selective). - Lymphatic dissection is typically categorized based on anatomical levels rather than a general directional term like posterolateral.