Internal Medicine
2 questionsHutchinson's Triad is specifically associated with which type of syphilis?
Which of the following is NOT part of the classic triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus?
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1271: Hutchinson's Triad is specifically associated with which type of syphilis?
- A. Tertiary syphilis
- B. Primary syphilis
- C. Congenital Syphilis (Correct Answer)
- D. Secondary Syphilis
Explanation: ***Congenital Syphilis*** - **Hutchinson's Triad** is a classic constellation of symptoms specific to **congenital syphilis**, reflecting the long-term effects of *in utero* infection [1]. - The triad includes **Hutchinson's teeth** (notched incisors), **interstitial keratitis** (corneal inflammation), and **sensorineural hearing loss**. *Tertiary syphilis* - This stage is characterized by **gummas**, **cardiovascular syphilis** (e.g., aortitis), and **neurosyphilis**, but not Hutchinson's triad [1]. - These manifestations develop years after initial infection in adults. *Primary syphilis* - The primary stage is marked by the appearance of a **painless chancre** at the site of infection [1]. - It does not involve the systemic, long-term complications seen in congenital syphilis. *Secondary Syphilis* - This stage typically presents with a **diffuse maculopapular rash**, **lymphadenopathy**, and sometimes **condylomata lata** [1]. - These are acute systemic symptoms, distinct from the developmental abnormalities of Hutchinson's triad.
Question 1272: Which of the following is NOT part of the classic triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus?
- A. Dementia
- B. Gait disturbance
- C. Urinary incontinence
- D. Headache (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Headache*** - Headache is **not a typical symptom** of normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) and is generally absent, differentiating NPH from other forms of hydrocephalus. - While headaches can occur in other brain conditions, they are **not part of the classic diagnostic triad** for NPH. *Dementia* - **Cognitive impairment**, often manifesting as **subcortical dementia** with executive dysfunction and memory problems, is a core feature of NPH [1]. - This symptom typically progresses and can be a significant cause of disability in affected individuals. *Gait disturbance* - An **ataxic gait** or "magnetic gait" (difficulty lifting feet off the floor) is often the **earliest and most prominent symptom** in NPH. - It significantly impacts mobility and balance, contributing to falls. *Urinary incontinence* - **Urinary urgency and incontinence**, often appearing later than gait disturbance but earlier than dementia, is the third component of the classic triad [1]. - This symptom results from the pressure effects on the **sacral micturition centers** [1].
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsHydrocephalus is best detected antenatally by :
NEET-PG 2015 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1271: Hydrocephalus is best detected antenatally by :
- A. X-ray abdomen
- B. Amniocentesis
- C. Clinical examination
- D. Ultrasonography (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Ultrasonography*** - **Antenatal ultrasonography** is the primary and most effective method for detecting fetal hydrocephalus. - It allows direct visualization of **ventricular dilation**, the key diagnostic finding in hydrocephalus (lateral ventricles >10mm at atrium level). - USG is **safe, non-invasive**, and can be performed repeatedly without radiation exposure. - It also helps identify associated anomalies and determine the cause of hydrocephalus. *X-ray abdomen* - **X-rays** expose the fetus to **ionizing radiation**, posing risks and violating ALARA (As Low As Reasonably Achievable) principles. - They provide limited detail of **soft tissue structures** like brain ventricles, making them unsuitable for diagnosing hydrocephalus. - X-rays are not used for antenatal diagnosis of fetal brain abnormalities. *Amniocentesis* - **Amniocentesis** is primarily used for **chromosomal analysis** and genetic testing, not for direct visualization of brain anomalies. - While some genetic conditions can lead to hydrocephalus, amniocentesis doesn't directly detect the hydrocephalus itself. - It cannot visualize structural fetal abnormalities. *Clinical examination* - **Antenatal clinical examination** of the mother cannot directly assess fetal brain abnormalities. - It may suggest fetal issues if there is an abnormally large uterine size or polyhydramnios, but it **lacks the specificity and sensitivity** to diagnose hydrocephalus. - Clinical examination alone is inadequate for detecting structural fetal anomalies.
Pathology
1 questionsMedulloblastoma arises exclusively from the cells of
NEET-PG 2015 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1271: Medulloblastoma arises exclusively from the cells of
- A. Immature embryonal cells (Correct Answer)
- B. Ependymal cells
- C. Neurons
- D. Spindle-shaped cells
Explanation: ***Immature embryonal cells*** - **Medulloblastoma** is a malignant **embryonal tumor** of the cerebellum, exclusively arising from primitive neuroectodermal cells. - These tumors are thought to originate from remnants of the **external granular layer** of the cerebellum or other primitive neuroectodermal cells. *Ependymal cells* - Tumors arising from **ependymal cells** are called **ependymomas**, which typically occur within the ventricles of the brain or spinal cord. - Ependymomas have distinct histological features and clinical behavior compared to medulloblastomas. *Neurons* - Tumors primarily composed of neurons or with significant neuronal differentiation include **gangliogliomas** and **central neurocytomas**. - **Medulloblastomas** largely consist of undifferentiated, small round cells with minimal evidence of neuronal maturation. *Spindle-shaped cells* - **Spindle-shaped cells** are characteristic of various tumor types, including some **gliomas** (e.g., pilocytic astrocytoma) or mesenchymal tumors. - While some medulloblastoma variants can show desmoplastic features, the hallmark cell type is a small, round, blue embryonal cell.
Pediatrics
5 questionsChild with 10 episodes of diarrhea in last 24 hours with sunken dry eyes, very slow skin pinch, and absent tears. Management is
Which of the following statements about encephalocoele is false?
Which of the following statements about cephalhematoma is correct?
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Kwashiorkor?
What is the maintenance fluid requirement in a 6 kg child ?
NEET-PG 2015 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1271: Child with 10 episodes of diarrhea in last 24 hours with sunken dry eyes, very slow skin pinch, and absent tears. Management is
- A. Administer 10% dextrose solution
- B. Administer intravenous Ringer's lactate (Correct Answer)
- C. Encourage breastfeeding
- D. Provide oral rehydration solution (ORS)
Explanation: ***Administer intravenous Ringer's lactate*** - The child presents with signs of **severe dehydration** (sunken dry eyes, very slow skin pinch, absent tears, 10 episodes of diarrhea), which necessitates **rapid intravenous fluid resuscitation**. - **Ringer's lactate** is an isotonic crystalloid solution that effectively replenishes intravascular volume and corrects electrolyte imbalances, making it the most appropriate initial management for severe dehydration. *Encourage breastfeeding* - While **breastfeeding** is crucial for hydration and nutrition in children with diarrhea, it is insufficient to correct **severe dehydration** rapidly. - This intervention is more suitable for managing **mild to moderate dehydration** or for rehydration after initial stabilization. *Administer 10% dextrose solution* - **10% dextrose solution** is used primarily to correct **hypoglycemia** or provide a source of calories, not for rapid volume expansion in severe dehydration. - Administering hypertonic solutions like 10% dextrose without adequate volume can worsen dehydration or cause electrolyte disturbances. *Provide oral rehydration solution (ORS)* - **Oral rehydration solution (ORS)** is the gold standard for treating **mild to moderate dehydration** and preventing dehydration due to diarrhea. - However, in cases of **severe dehydration**, where the child may be lethargic, vomiting frequently, or have impaired absorption, ORS alone is often insufficient and intravenous fluids are required for initial stabilization.
Question 1272: Which of the following statements about encephalocoele is false?
- A. It is a neural tube defect
- B. Common in the parietal region (Correct Answer)
- C. Can be associated with hydrocephalus
- D. It is protrusion of neural tissue through a defect
Explanation: ***Common in the parietal region*** - This statement is **false** because encephaloceles are **rarely found in the parietal region** (only 10-15% of cases). - **Occipital encephaloceles** are most common in Western populations (75-80%), while **frontal/sincipital encephaloceles** are most common in Southeast Asia including India (40-60%). - **Parietal encephaloceles** represent only a small minority of cases globally, making this statement incorrect. *It is a neural tube defect* - **Encephalocele** is indeed a type of **neural tube defect (NTD)**, resulting from incomplete closure of the neural tube during embryonic development. - Specifically, it involves a defect in the skull that allows for protrusion of brain tissue and/or meninges. *Can be associated with hydrocephalus* - **Hydrocephalus**, or the accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain, is a known complication and associated condition with encephaloceles. - The abnormal brain development and structural defects can disrupt normal CSF flow and absorption, particularly with posterior encephaloceles. *It is protrusion of neural tissue through a defect* - This is the defining characteristic of an **encephalocele**: the **herniation of intracranial contents**, such as brain tissue, meninges, or both, through a congenital **bony defect** in the skull. - The contents of the sac can vary (meninges only = meningocele; brain tissue included = meningoencephalocele), influencing clinical presentation and prognosis.
Question 1273: Which of the following statements about cephalhematoma is correct?
- A. It is hemorrhage between the skull and periosteum (Correct Answer)
- B. It is hemorrhage within the subcutaneous tissue around the skull
- C. It is type of subdural hemorrhage
- D. It is subperiosteal bleeding in the skull
Explanation: ***It is hemorrhage between the skull and periosteum*** - A **cephalhematoma** is defined as a collection of blood between the **periosteum** and the underlying **skull bone** (subperiosteal). - Its boundaries are limited by the suture lines because the periosteum is firmly attached at these junctions, preventing blood from crossing. *It is hemorrhage within the subcutaneous tissue around the skull* - This description corresponds to a **caput succedaneum**, which involves **edema and hemorrhage** in the subcutaneous tissue, rather than between the skull and periosteum. - Unlike a cephalhematoma, a **caput succedaneum** can cross suture lines and is typically present at birth. *It is type of subdural hemorrhage* - A **subdural hemorrhage** involves bleeding between the **dura mater** and the **arachnoid mater** within the cranial vault. - This type of hemorrhage is a **neurological emergency** and is distinct from a cephalhematoma, which is an external scalp injury. *It is subperiosteal bleeding in the skull* - While this statement is technically correct (subperiosteal means under the periosteum), the **standard definition** specifically states "between the periosteum and the skull bone." - The distinction is important: **subperiosteal** could theoretically include bleeding within the periosteum itself, whereas the precise location is in the **potential space** between periosteum and bone. - Option A is more precise and is the preferred medical definition.
Question 1274: Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Kwashiorkor?
- A. Hypertension (Correct Answer)
- B. Hair changes and depigmentation
- C. Edema
- D. Growth retardation
Explanation: ***Hypertension*** - **Hypertension** is generally **NOT a direct symptom** of Kwashiorkor; rather, children with Kwashiorkor often have **low blood pressure** due to overall cardiovascular system depression. - While chronic malnutrition can have various systemic effects, elevated blood pressure is not a characteristic clinical feature of this condition. - This is the correct answer as the question asks what is NOT a symptom. *Hair changes and depigmentation* - This is a **classic symptom** of Kwashiorkor, characterized by sparse, brittle hair that may be discolored (e.g., reddish or yellowish - "flag sign"). - These changes reflect the severe protein deficiency interfering with hair follicle function and melanin production. *Edema* - **Edema**, particularly in the lower extremities and face, is a **hallmark symptom** of Kwashiorkor, caused by severe protein deficiency leading to decreased oncotic pressure. - This results in fluid shifting from the intravascular space into the interstitial space. *Growth retardation* - **Growth retardation** (stunting) is a common and severe symptom of Kwashiorkor, reflecting the long-term impact of inadequate protein and energy intake on physical development. - Both height and weight are significantly below age-appropriate norms.
Question 1275: What is the maintenance fluid requirement in a 6 kg child ?
- A. 240 ml/day
- B. 600 ml/day (Correct Answer)
- C. 300 ml/day
- D. 1200 ml/day
Explanation: **600 ml/day** - The **Holliday-Segar formula** is used to calculate maintenance fluid requirements. For the first 10 kg of body weight, the requirement is 100 ml/kg/day. - For a 6 kg child, the calculation is 6 kg * 100 ml/kg/day = **600 ml/day**. *240 ml/day* - This value is significantly **lower** than the recommended maintenance fluid for a 6 kg child, which would lead to **dehydration**. - It does not align with the standard Holliday-Segar formula for this weight. *300 ml/day* - This amount is **insufficient** for a 6 kg child's daily maintenance fluid needs and would risk **hypovolemia**. - It represents roughly half of the calculated requirement based on standard pediatric guidelines. *1200 ml/day* - This volume is significantly **higher** than the maintenance fluid requirement for a 6 kg child and could lead to **fluid overload** and hyponatremia. - This calculation might be appropriate for a much heavier child or in situations of increased fluid loss.
Physiology
1 questionsTestes are not palpable in
NEET-PG 2015 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1271: Testes are not palpable in
- A. SRY deletion (Correct Answer)
- B. DAX 1 deletion
- C. WNT- 4 gene mutation
- D. RSPO-1 gene mutation
Explanation: ***SRY deletion*** - **SRY (Sex-determining Region Y) gene** is the master regulator of male sex determination on the Y chromosome; its deletion in 46,XY individuals results in **Swyer syndrome** (pure gonadal dysgenesis). - Without functional SRY, **testes fail to develop entirely**, and the gonads remain as non-functional **streak gonads** rather than differentiating into either testes or ovaries. - Result: **No palpable testes** because testicular tissue never forms; individuals develop female external genitalia despite XY karyotype. *DAX1 deletion* - DAX1 (NR0B1) normally **antagonizes testicular development** and supports adrenal/gonadal development. - **Deletion of DAX1** would actually **reduce anti-testis effects**, allowing testicular development to proceed more readily if SRY is present. - DAX1 **duplications** (not deletions) can impair male development; deletions cause **adrenal hypoplasia congenita** but do not prevent testicular formation. *WNT-4 gene mutation* - **WNT4** promotes **ovarian development** and opposes male differentiation pathways in normal female development. - **Loss-of-function mutations** in WNT4 do not prevent testicular development in 46,XY individuals where SRY is present and functional. - WNT4 overexpression (not loss-of-function mutation) could theoretically interfere with male development, but standard WNT4 mutations do not cause absent testes. *RSPO-1 gene mutation* - **RSPO1** (R-spondin 1) enhances **Wnt/β-catenin signaling** and supports ovarian differentiation; primarily relevant in 46,XX sex development. - Loss-of-function mutations in RSPO1 lead to **46,XX testicular/ovotesticular DSD**, where testicular tissue develops inappropriately in XX individuals. - In 46,XY individuals with functional SRY, RSPO1 mutations would **not prevent testicular development**, so testes would be palpable.