NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: What is the shape of caecum in the newborn?

Conical. ***Conical*** - In newborns, the **caecum** is typically described as having a **conical** shape. - This shape gradually changes as the individual grows and develops. *Ovoid* - The ovoid shape is more characteristic of the adult **caecum**, which tends to be broader and less pointed. - This shape is not typically observed in newborns. *Globular* - A globular shape implies a more rounded and spherical form, which is not accurate for the newborn **caecum**. - This term is sometimes used to describe the general appearance of some organs but not the specific shape of the neonatal caecum. *Trapezoid* - A trapezoid shape is defined by four sides with at least one pair of parallel sides, which does not accurately describe the normal anatomical configuration of the **caecum** at any age. - This shape is completely inconsistent with the morphology of the **caecum**.

Q: Which of the following is a metabolic disorder inherited in an X-linked manner?

Adrenoleukodystrophy. ***Adrenoleukodystrophy*** - **Adrenoleukodystrophy (ALD)** is an **X-linked recessive disorder** that affects the metabolism of very long-chain fatty acids (VLCFAs). - It leads to the demyelination of nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord, as well as adrenal gland insufficiency. *Phenylketonuria* - **Phenylketonuria (PKU)** is an **autosomal recessive metabolic disorder** caused by a defect in the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase. - It results in the accumulation of phenylalanine, leading to intellectual disability if not treated with a specialized diet. *Duchenne muscular dystrophy* - While **Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)** is indeed an **X-linked recessive disorder**, it is primarily a muscle disorder, not a metabolic disorder in the classic sense. - It involves a mutation in the **dystrophin gene**, leading to progressive muscle degeneration and weakness. *Marfan syndrome* - **Marfan syndrome** is an **autosomal dominant disorder** affecting connective tissue. - It is caused by a mutation in the **FBN1 gene**, which codes for fibrillin-1, and primarily affects the skeletal, ocular, and cardiovascular systems.

Q: Hutchinson's Triad is specifically associated with which type of syphilis?

Congenital Syphilis. ***Congenital Syphilis*** - **Hutchinson's Triad** is a classic constellation of symptoms specific to **congenital syphilis**, reflecting the long-term effects of *in utero* infection [1]. - The triad includes **Hutchinson's teeth** (notched incisors), **interstitial keratitis** (corneal inflammation), and **sensorineural hearing loss**. *Tertiary syphilis* - This stage is characterized by **gummas**, **cardiovascular syphilis** (e.g., aortitis), and **neurosyphilis**, but not Hutchinson's triad [1]. - These manifestations develop years after initial infection in adults. *Primary syphilis* - The primary stage is marked by the appearance of a **painless chancre** at the site of infection [1]. - It does not involve the systemic, long-term complications seen in congenital syphilis. *Secondary Syphilis* - This stage typically presents with a **diffuse maculopapular rash**, **lymphadenopathy**, and sometimes **condylomata lata** [1]. - These are acute systemic symptoms, distinct from the developmental abnormalities of Hutchinson's triad.

Q: Which of the following is NOT part of the classic triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus?

Headache. ***Headache*** - Headache is **not a typical symptom** of normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) and is generally absent, differentiating NPH from other forms of hydrocephalus. - While headaches can occur in other brain conditions, they are **not part of the classic diagnostic triad** for NPH. *Dementia* - **Cognitive impairment**, often manifesting as **subcortical dementia** with executive dysfunction and memory problems, is a core feature of NPH [1]. - This symptom typically progresses and can be a significant cause of disability in affected individuals. *Gait disturbance* - An **ataxic gait** or "magnetic gait" (difficulty lifting feet off the floor) is often the **earliest and most prominent symptom** in NPH. - It significantly impacts mobility and balance, contributing to falls. *Urinary incontinence* - **Urinary urgency and incontinence**, often appearing later than gait disturbance but earlier than dementia, is the third component of the classic triad [1]. - This symptom results from the pressure effects on the **sacral micturition centers** [1].

Q: Hydrocephalus is best detected antenatally by :

Ultrasonography. ***Ultrasonography*** - **Antenatal ultrasonography** is the primary and most effective method for detecting fetal hydrocephalus. - It allows direct visualization of **ventricular dilation**, the key diagnostic finding in hydrocephalus (lateral ventricles >10mm at atrium level). - USG is **safe, non-invasive**, and can be performed repeatedly without radiation exposure. - It also helps identify associated anomalies and determine the cause of hydrocephalus. *X-ray abdomen* - **X-rays** expose the fetus to **ionizing radiation**, posing risks and violating ALARA (As Low As Reasonably Achievable) principles. - They provide limited detail of **soft tissue structures** like brain ventricles, making them unsuitable for diagnosing hydrocephalus. - X-rays are not used for antenatal diagnosis of fetal brain abnormalities. *Amniocentesis* - **Amniocentesis** is primarily used for **chromosomal analysis** and genetic testing, not for direct visualization of brain anomalies. - While some genetic conditions can lead to hydrocephalus, amniocentesis doesn't directly detect the hydrocephalus itself. - It cannot visualize structural fetal abnormalities. *Clinical examination* - **Antenatal clinical examination** of the mother cannot directly assess fetal brain abnormalities. - It may suggest fetal issues if there is an abnormally large uterine size or polyhydramnios, but it **lacks the specificity and sensitivity** to diagnose hydrocephalus. - Clinical examination alone is inadequate for detecting structural fetal anomalies.

Q: Medulloblastoma arises exclusively from the cells of

Immature embryonal cells. ***Immature embryonal cells*** - **Medulloblastoma** is a malignant **embryonal tumor** of the cerebellum, exclusively arising from primitive neuroectodermal cells. - These tumors are thought to originate from remnants of the **external granular layer** of the cerebellum or other primitive neuroectodermal cells. *Ependymal cells* - Tumors arising from **ependymal cells** are called **ependymomas**, which typically occur within the ventricles of the brain or spinal cord. - Ependymomas have distinct histological features and clinical behavior compared to medulloblastomas. *Neurons* - Tumors primarily composed of neurons or with significant neuronal differentiation include **gangliogliomas** and **central neurocytomas**. - **Medulloblastomas** largely consist of undifferentiated, small round cells with minimal evidence of neuronal maturation. *Spindle-shaped cells* - **Spindle-shaped cells** are characteristic of various tumor types, including some **gliomas** (e.g., pilocytic astrocytoma) or mesenchymal tumors. - While some medulloblastoma variants can show desmoplastic features, the hallmark cell type is a small, round, blue embryonal cell.

Q: A newborn presents with subconjunctival hemorrhage. The treatment is

No treatment. ***No treatment*** - **Subconjunctival hemorrhage** in a newborn is typically **benign** and **resolves spontaneously** within **1-2 weeks**. - It is often caused by the trauma of birth and does not require intervention. *Antibiotic eye drops* - These are indicated for **bacterial conjunctivitis** or to prevent bacterial infection, which is not the case here. - Using antibiotics without a bacterial indication is unnecessary and can contribute to **antibiotic resistance**. *Aspiration* - **Aspiration** is an invasive procedure and is **not indicated** for a subconjunctival hemorrhage, which is a collection of blood under the conjunctiva. - It could cause further damage or introduce infection. *Antibiotic and steroid drops* - **Steroid drops** are typically used to reduce **inflammation**, which is not the primary issue in a subconjunctival hemorrhage. - Like plain antibiotic drops, the **antibiotic component** is not necessary in the absence of infection.

Q: Child with 10 episodes of diarrhea in last 24 hours with sunken dry eyes, very slow skin pinch, and absent tears. Management is

Administer intravenous Ringer's lactate. ***Administer intravenous Ringer's lactate*** - The child presents with signs of **severe dehydration** (sunken dry eyes, very slow skin pinch, absent tears, 10 episodes of diarrhea), which necessitates **rapid intravenous fluid resuscitation**. - **Ringer's lactate** is an isotonic crystalloid solution that effectively replenishes intravascular volume and corrects electrolyte imbalances, making it the most appropriate initial management for severe dehydration. *Encourage breastfeeding* - While **breastfeeding** is crucial for hydration and nutrition in children with diarrhea, it is insufficient to correct **severe dehydration** rapidly. - This intervention is more suitable for managing **mild to moderate dehydration** or for rehydration after initial stabilization. *Administer 10% dextrose solution* - **10% dextrose solution** is used primarily to correct **hypoglycemia** or provide a source of calories, not for rapid volume expansion in severe dehydration. - Administering hypertonic solutions like 10% dextrose without adequate volume can worsen dehydration or cause electrolyte disturbances. *Provide oral rehydration solution (ORS)* - **Oral rehydration solution (ORS)** is the gold standard for treating **mild to moderate dehydration** and preventing dehydration due to diarrhea. - However, in cases of **severe dehydration**, where the child may be lethargic, vomiting frequently, or have impaired absorption, ORS alone is often insufficient and intravenous fluids are required for initial stabilization.

Q: Which of the following statements about encephalocoele is false?

Common in the parietal region. ***Common in the parietal region*** - This statement is **false** because encephaloceles are **rarely found in the parietal region** (only 10-15% of cases). - **Occipital encephaloceles** are most common in Western populations (75-80%), while **frontal/sincipital encephaloceles** are most common in Southeast Asia including India (40-60%). - **Parietal encephaloceles** represent only a small minority of cases globally, making this statement incorrect. *It is a neural tube defect* - **Encephalocele** is indeed a type of **neural tube defect (NTD)**, resulting from incomplete closure of the neural tube during embryonic development. - Specifically, it involves a defect in the skull that allows for protrusion of brain tissue and/or meninges. *Can be associated with hydrocephalus* - **Hydrocephalus**, or the accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain, is a known complication and associated condition with encephaloceles. - The abnormal brain development and structural defects can disrupt normal CSF flow and absorption, particularly with posterior encephaloceles. *It is protrusion of neural tissue through a defect* - This is the defining characteristic of an **encephalocele**: the **herniation of intracranial contents**, such as brain tissue, meninges, or both, through a congenital **bony defect** in the skull. - The contents of the sac can vary (meninges only = meningocele; brain tissue included = meningoencephalocele), influencing clinical presentation and prognosis.

Q: Testes are not palpable in

SRY deletion. ***SRY deletion*** - **SRY (Sex-determining Region Y) gene** is the master regulator of male sex determination on the Y chromosome; its deletion in 46,XY individuals results in **Swyer syndrome** (pure gonadal dysgenesis). - Without functional SRY, **testes fail to develop entirely**, and the gonads remain as non-functional **streak gonads** rather than differentiating into either testes or ovaries. - Result: **No palpable testes** because testicular tissue never forms; individuals develop female external genitalia despite XY karyotype. *DAX1 deletion* - DAX1 (NR0B1) normally **antagonizes testicular development** and supports adrenal/gonadal development. - **Deletion of DAX1** would actually **reduce anti-testis effects**, allowing testicular development to proceed more readily if SRY is present. - DAX1 **duplications** (not deletions) can impair male development; deletions cause **adrenal hypoplasia congenita** but do not prevent testicular formation. *WNT-4 gene mutation* - **WNT4** promotes **ovarian development** and opposes male differentiation pathways in normal female development. - **Loss-of-function mutations** in WNT4 do not prevent testicular development in 46,XY individuals where SRY is present and functional. - WNT4 overexpression (not loss-of-function mutation) could theoretically interfere with male development, but standard WNT4 mutations do not cause absent testes. *RSPO-1 gene mutation* - **RSPO1** (R-spondin 1) enhances **Wnt/β-catenin signaling** and supports ovarian differentiation; primarily relevant in 46,XX sex development. - Loss-of-function mutations in RSPO1 lead to **46,XX testicular/ovotesticular DSD**, where testicular tissue develops inappropriately in XX individuals. - In 46,XY individuals with functional SRY, RSPO1 mutations would **not prevent testicular development**, so testes would be palpable.

Question 1

What is the shape of caecum in the newborn?

Accepted Answer

Conical

Answer

Ovoid

Answer

Trapezoid

Answer

Globular

Question 2

Which of the following is a metabolic disorder inherited in an X-linked manner?

Accepted Answer

Adrenoleukodystrophy

Answer

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

Answer

Phenylketonuria

Answer

Marfan syndrome

Question 3

Hutchinson's Triad is specifically associated with which type of syphilis?

Accepted Answer

Congenital Syphilis

Answer

Tertiary syphilis

Answer

Primary syphilis

Answer

Secondary Syphilis

Question 4

Which of the following is NOT part of the classic triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus?

Accepted Answer

Headache

Answer

Dementia

Answer

Gait disturbance

Answer

Urinary incontinence

Question 5

Hydrocephalus is best detected antenatally by :

Accepted Answer

Ultrasonography

Answer

X-ray abdomen

Answer

Amniocentesis

Answer

Clinical examination

Question 6

Medulloblastoma arises exclusively from the cells of

Accepted Answer

Immature embryonal cells

Answer

Ependymal cells

Answer

Neurons

Answer

Spindle-shaped cells

Question 7

A newborn presents with subconjunctival hemorrhage. The treatment is

Accepted Answer

No treatment

Answer

Antibiotic eye drops

Answer

Antibiotic and steroid drops

Answer

Aspiration

Question 8

Child with 10 episodes of diarrhea in last 24 hours with sunken dry eyes, very slow skin pinch, and absent tears. Management is

Accepted Answer

Administer intravenous Ringer's lactate

Answer

Administer 10% dextrose solution

Answer

Encourage breastfeeding

Answer

Provide oral rehydration solution (ORS)

Question 9

Which of the following statements about encephalocoele is false?

Accepted Answer

Common in the parietal region

Answer

It is a neural tube defect

Answer

Can be associated with hydrocephalus

Answer

It is protrusion of neural tissue through a defect

Question 10

Testes are not palpable in

Accepted Answer

SRY deletion

Answer

DAX 1 deletion

Answer

WNT- 4 gene mutation

Answer

RSPO-1 gene mutation

NEET-PG 2015

Anatomy

Biochemistry

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pathology

Pediatrics

Physiology