Anatomy
1 questionsCephalic index is calculated as
NEET-PG 2015 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1251: Cephalic index is calculated as
- A. Biparietal Diameter / Occipitofrontal Diameter (Correct Answer)
- B. Biparietal Diameter / Head Circumference
- C. Head Circumference / Femur Length
- D. Occipitofrontal Diameter / Biparietal Diameter
Explanation: ***Biparietal Diameter / Occipitofrontal Diameter*** - The **cephalic index** is a measure used in **craniometry** to describe the shape of the skull, calculated by dividing the maximum **biparietal diameter** (width) by the maximum **occipitofrontal diameter** (length) and multiplying by 100. [1] - This ratio helps classify head shapes into **brachycephalic** (short, wide), **mesocephalic** (medium), and **dolichocephalic** (long, narrow). *Biparietal Diameter / Head Circumference* - This ratio is not the standard definition for the **cephalic index**; head circumference is a measure of overall head size, not its proportional shape in terms of width to length. - While both parameters are used in fetal biometry, their ratio does not define the **cephalic index**. *Head Circumference / Femur Length* - This ratio is completely unrelated to the **cephalic index**. - **Head circumference** estimates head size, and **femur length** estimates fetal long bone growth, both used for gestational age assessment, but not for skull shape. *Occipitofrontal Diameter / Biparietal Diameter* - This formula represents the inverse of the **cephalic index**, which would yield a different and non-standard index for skull shape. - The traditional and medically recognized formula for the **cephalic index** places the **biparietal diameter** in the numerator.
Microbiology
1 questionsWhich microorganism is the most common cause of pyogenic osteomyelitis?
NEET-PG 2015 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1251: Which microorganism is the most common cause of pyogenic osteomyelitis?
- A. S. aureus (Correct Answer)
- B. Streptococcus spp.
- C. Corynebacterium spp.
- D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae (gonococcus)
Explanation: ***Staph aureus*** - **_Staphylococcus aureus_** is the most frequent cause of **pyogenic osteomyelitis** across all age groups and routes of infection. - Its ability to adhere to bone, form biofilms, and produce toxins contributes to its prevalence in bone infections. *Streptococcus spp.* - While various **_Streptococcus_** species can cause infections, they are less common causes of pyogenic osteomyelitis compared to **_Staphylococcus aureus_**. - **Group A _Streptococcus_** can cause severe invasive infections but rarely involves primary bone infection. *Corynebacterium spp.* - **_Corynebacterium_** species, particularly **_Corynebacterium striatum_**, are increasingly recognized as opportunistic pathogens, especially in immunocompromised individuals or those with foreign bodies. - However, they are not the most common cause of osteomyelitis in the general population. *Neisseria gonorrhoeae (gonococcus)* - **_Neisseria gonorrhoeae_** can cause **disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI)**, which may include joint involvement (**septic arthritis**). - While it can lead to bone pain and swelling, it primarily affects joints and is a less common cause of direct **pyogenic osteomyelitis** than **_S. aureus_**.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsWhich of the following ovarian tumors is most prone to undergo torsion during pregnancy?
NEET-PG 2015 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1251: Which of the following ovarian tumors is most prone to undergo torsion during pregnancy?
- A. Serous cystadenoma
- B. Mucinous cystadenoma
- C. Dermoid cyst (Correct Answer)
- D. Theca lutein cyst
Explanation: ***Dermoid cyst*** - **Dermoid cysts**, or mature cystic teratomas, are the **most common ovarian tumors** to undergo torsion, especially during pregnancy due to their mobility and moderate size. - They are often **unilateral** and benign, containing various mature tissues such as hair, teeth, and sebaceous material. *Serous cystadenoma* - While common, **serous cystadenomas** are generally **less mobile** than dermoid cysts and thus have a lower propensity for torsion. - They are typically filled with **clear, watery fluid** and can grow to be quite large. *Mucinous cystadenoma* - **Mucinous cystadenomas** tend to be **larger** than dermoid cysts and are less prone to torsion due to their size and often fixed position within the pelvis. - They are filled with **thick, gelatinous mucin** and can reach massive sizes, sometimes filling the entire abdominal cavity. *Theca lutein cyst* - **Theca lutein cysts** are usually **bilateral** and occur with conditions like **gestational trophoblastic disease** or **ovarian hyperstimulation**. - While they can be large, their often bilateral nature and underlying pathological conditions make them **less likely to independently twist** as a primary event compared to a freely mobile dermoid cyst.
Orthopaedics
5 questions4 year old child presented to the clinic with a history of fall on outstretched hand. Radiographs revealed a broken anterior cortex with an intact posterior cortex of the radius with an exaggerated bowing of the radius. The fracture sustained is known as -
Greenstick/ Nightstick fractures are seen in -
What condition is characterized by a waddling gait?
Who devised the correction of CTEV by serial casting?
Fracture neck of femur in 80-year-old male sustained 1 week ago. The treatment of choice is -
NEET-PG 2015 - Orthopaedics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1251: 4 year old child presented to the clinic with a history of fall on outstretched hand. Radiographs revealed a broken anterior cortex with an intact posterior cortex of the radius with an exaggerated bowing of the radius. The fracture sustained is known as -
- A. Torus Fracture
- B. Greenstick fracture (Correct Answer)
- C. Galleazi Fracture
- D. Monteggia Fracture Dislocation
Explanation: ***Greenstick fracture*** - This fracture type involves a **broken anterior cortex** but an **intact posterior cortex**, leading to an exaggerated bowing of the bone, characteristic of a greenstick fracture. - It occurs predominantly in **children** due to their softer, more flexible bones, which tend to bend rather than fully break when subjected to force like a fall on an outstretched hand. *Torus Fracture* - A torus fracture, or **buckle fracture**, involves compression of the bone leading to a bulging or buckling of the cortex, usually on one side, without a complete break in the bone. - While it occurs in children, it presents as a compression injury and not with a broken cortex and intact posterior cortex with bowing. *Galleazi Fracture* - A Galleazi fracture is a fracture of the **distal radius** with **dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ)**. - This fracture pattern involves two bones and two distinct injuries (fracture and dislocation), which is fundamentally different from the described single-bone incomplete fracture. *Monteggia Fracture Dislocation* - A Monteggia fracture involves a fracture of the **proximal ulna** with **dislocation of the radial head** at the elbow. - This injury also involves two bones and two distinct components (fracture and dislocation) and affects a different anatomical location (ulna and elbow) than described.
Question 1252: Greenstick/ Nightstick fractures are seen in -
- A. Children (Correct Answer)
- B. Elderly
- C. Common in all age groups
- D. Young adults
Explanation: ***
Question 1253: What condition is characterized by a waddling gait?
- A. Bilateral congenital dysplasia of hip (Correct Answer)
- B. Coxa valga
- C. CTEV
- D. Muscular dystrophy
Explanation: ***Bilateral congenital dysplasia of hip*** - A **waddling gait**, also known as a **Trendelenburg gait**, occurs due to weakness of the hip abductor muscles (gluteus medius and minimus) on both sides. - In bilateral congenital dysplasia of the hip, the **femoral heads are poorly seated** or dislocated, leading to ineffective abductor function and the characteristic gait. *Coxa valga* - This condition involves an **increased angle** between the femoral neck and shaft, which can alter biomechanics but does not typically cause a waddling gait in isolation. - While it can be associated with other hip pathologies, **coxa valga itself is not the primary cause** of a waddling gait. *CTEV* - **CTEV (Congenital Talipes Equinovarus)**, or **clubfoot**, is a deformity of the foot and ankle, not the hip. - It affects the patient's ability to walk normally, but results in a different type of gait abnormality, typically involving limping or walking on the outer edge of the foot, **not a waddling gait**. *Muscular dystrophy* - While many forms of muscular dystrophy can lead to a waddling gait due to **proximal muscle weakness**, it is a broad category of genetic disorders. - Without further context or specific type of muscular dystrophy, **bilateral congenital hip dysplasia is a more direct and specific cause** for the symptom described.
Question 1254: Who devised the correction of CTEV by serial casting?
- A. Gerhardt Kuntscher
- B. Gavril Ilizarov
- C. Hugh Owen Thomas
- D. Ignacio Ponseti (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Ignacio Ponseti*** - Dr. Ignacio Ponseti developed the **Ponseti method**, a non-surgical technique for correcting **congenital talipes equinovarus (CTEV)**, commonly known as clubfoot. - This method involves a series of **gentle manipulations** and **serial casting**, followed by the use of a foot abduction brace. *Gerhardt Kuntscher* - **Gerhardt Kuntscher** was a German surgeon known for developing the **intramedullary nail** for fixing long bone fractures. - His contributions revolutionized the surgical management of fractures, but he did not develop the method for CTEV correction. *Gavril Ilizarov* - **Gavril Ilizarov** was a Soviet orthopedic surgeon famous for inventing the **Ilizarov apparatus**, an external fixator used for limb lengthening and complex fracture treatment. - His work focused on osteogenesis and bone regeneration, not the non-surgical correction of clubfoot. *Hugh Owen Thomas* - **Hugh Owen Thomas** was a Welsh orthopedic surgeon regarded as the "father of British orthopaedic surgery," known for the development of the **Thomas splint**. - His contributions were primarily in managing fractures and tuberculosis of the joints, independent of CTEV correction techniques.
Question 1255: Fracture neck of femur in 80-year-old male sustained 1 week ago. The treatment of choice is -
- A. Hemiarthroplasty (Correct Answer)
- B. Closed reduction and fixation with three cancellous screws
- C. Longitudinal skin traction for 6 weeks
- D. Excision arthroplasty
Explanation: ***Hemiarthroplasty*** - For an 80-year-old with a **fracture of the femoral neck**, especially if sustained a week ago, **hemiarthroplasty** is the preferred treatment to allow early mobilization and prevent complications of prolonged recumbency. - This procedure replaces the **femoral head** and neck, minimizing the risk of **avascular necrosis** and **non-union** which are common complications in older patients with displaced femoral neck fractures. *Excision arthroplasty* - **Excision arthroplasty**, also known as **Girdlestone arthroplasty**, is a salvage procedure typically reserved for cases of severe infection, failed prosthetic implants, or when other options are not viable. - It involves removing the femoral head, creating a **pseudarthrosis**, and results in a shortened, unstable limb, making it unsuitable as a primary treatment. *Closed reduction and fixation with three cancellous screws* - This option is generally considered for **younger patients** with undisplaced or minimally displaced **femoral neck fractures** due to better bone quality and lower risk of avascular necrosis. - In an 80-year-old, the risks of **non-union** and **avascular necrosis** are significantly higher, and the prolonged weight-bearing restrictions associated with this method are detrimental. *Longitudinal skin traction for 6 weeks* - Prolonged **skin traction** is rarely used for femoral neck fractures, especially in the elderly, due to the high risk of complications such as **skin breakdown**, **deep vein thrombosis**, **pneumonia**, and **muscle atrophy**. - It does not provide definitive fixation and is not a definitive treatment for a bony fracture.
Pediatrics
1 questionsWhich of the following is true regarding precocious puberty:
NEET-PG 2015 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1251: Which of the following is true regarding precocious puberty:
- A. Sexual maturity is attained early (Correct Answer)
- B. Mental function is increased
- C. Reproductive function is absent
- D. Body proportions remain unchanged
Explanation: ***Sexual maturity is attained early*** - **Precocious puberty** is defined by the development of secondary sexual characteristics significantly earlier than the average age. - This early onset of puberty means that affected individuals reach **sexual maturity** at a younger chronological age. *Mental function is increased* - Precocious puberty does not inherently lead to an increase in **mental function** or cognitive abilities. - While hormonal changes can influence mood and behavior, they do not enhance intelligence. *Reproductive function is absent* - Precocious puberty implies the premature activation of the **hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis**, leading to the appearance of secondary sexual characteristics and, in many cases, the potential for **reproductive function**. - Girls, for example, can experience early menarche and boys can produce sperm, meaning fertility is not absent but rather accelerated. *Body proportions remain unchanged* - Precocious puberty often results in changes in **body proportions**, particularly due to the early closure of epiphyseal plates. - Although there is an initial growth spurt, the premature fusion of growth plates can lead to a shorter-than-average adult height.
Physiology
1 questionsLocking of the knee involves which of the following?
NEET-PG 2015 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1251: Locking of the knee involves which of the following?
- A. Internal rotation of the tibia with the foot on the ground
- B. Contraction of the popliteus muscle
- C. Internal rotation of the femur with the foot on the ground (Correct Answer)
- D. External rotation of femur with the foot off the ground
Explanation: ***Internal rotation of the femur with the foot on the ground*** - When the foot is on the ground (closed kinematic chain), the **femur rotates internally on the tibia** during the end stages of knee extension. This creates a more stable, "locked" position of the knee. - This **terminal rotation of the femur** increases the contact area and tension in the cruciate ligaments, enhancing joint stability for weight-bearing. *Internal rotation of the tibia with the foot on the ground* - This describes the action of the **popliteus muscle** when "unlocking" the knee from full extension, not the locking mechanism itself. - With the foot on the ground, the tibia is fixed, and internal rotation would typically be a movement for unlocking, not locking. *Contraction of the popliteus muscle* - The **popliteus muscle** is primarily responsible for **unlocking the knee** from full extension, by causing internal rotation of the tibia (or external rotation of the femur). - Its contraction would lead to initial flexion of the knee, releasing the locked position, not establishing it. *External rotation of femur with the foot off the ground* - With the foot off the ground (open kinematic chain), **external rotation of the tibia** occurs during the final degrees of extension to lock the knee, not external rotation of the femur. - The locking mechanism requires specific relative rotation between femur and tibia; external rotation of the femur alone would not achieve the screw-home mechanism necessary for knee locking.