Internal Medicine
4 questionsWhich of the following is NOT a common complication of acute pancreatitis?
Bilateral parotid enlargement occurs in all, Except:
Chronic hemolytic anaemia is associated with which of the following -
All of the following are features of Zollinger Ellison syndrome except:
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1231: Which of the following is NOT a common complication of acute pancreatitis?
- A. Subcutaneous fat necrosis
- B. Hyperlipidemia
- C. Hypercalcemia (Correct Answer)
- D. Increased amylase level
Explanation: ***Hypercalcemia*** - Acute pancreatitis is primarily associated with **increased amylase levels** and **hyperlipidemia**, while hypercalcemia is generally a separate condition. - It is not a classical complication or result of acute pancreatitis, but rather might be a cause in cases like **hyperparathyroidism** [1]. *Subcutaneous fat necrosis* - This occurs as a result of **lipolysis** during acute pancreatitis due to the release of **lipases** into circulation [1]. - It is characterized by the presence of **fat necrosis** on the abdomen or buttocks. *Increased amylase level* - A hallmark of acute pancreatitis is **elevated levels of amylase** and sometimes lipase, indicating pancreatic inflammation [1]. - The rise typically occurs within the first 24 hours of the onset of pancreatitis. *Hyperlipidemia* - This is often found in acute pancreatitis due to excess **lipolysis**, leading to elevated triglycerides in the blood [1]. - It can be both a cause and a consequence of pancreatic inflammation, contributing to the disease process [1].
Question 1232: Bilateral parotid enlargement occurs in all, Except:
- A. HIV
- B. SLE
- C. Chronic pancreatitis (Correct Answer)
- D. Mumps
Explanation: ***SLE*** - **Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)** typically does not present with **bilateral parotid enlargement**, which is more characteristic of other conditions. - Salivary gland involvement in SLE is less prevalent and usually not the primary clinical feature associated with the disease. *HIV* - **HIV** infection can lead to **bilateral parotid enlargement** due to associated conditions such as lymphadenopathy and infections like **salivary gland infections**. [1] - **Lymphoid tissue** hyperplasia in response to HIV is another factor contributing to this enlargement. *Sjogren's syndrome* - **Sjogren's syndrome** is a common cause of **bilateral parotid enlargement** due to inflammatory infiltrates affecting the salivary glands. - Patients typically experience **xerostomia** (dry mouth) and **xerophthalmia** (dry eyes) alongside gland enlargement [2]. *Chronic pancreatitis* - Patients with **chronic pancreatitis** may develop **bilateral parotid enlargement** due to associated changes such as **sialadenosis** from malnutrition and electrolyte imbalances. - The enlargement occurs as a **compensatory mechanism** related to the pancreatic pathology affecting nearby structures.
Question 1233: Chronic hemolytic anaemia is associated with which of the following -
- A. Brown Pigment stone of the gall bladder
- B. Black Pigment stone of the gall bladder (Correct Answer)
- C. Uric acid Renal Calculus
- D. Intestinal Obstruction
Explanation: ***Black Pigment stone of the gall bladder*** - Chronic hemolytic anemia leads to increased **bilirubin**, particularly unconjugated bilirubin, which can result in the formation of **black pigment stones** [1]. - These stones are associated with conditions causing **excess bilirubin production**, such as sickle cell disease and thalassemia. *Brown Pigment stone of the gall bladder* - Brown pigment stones are primarily associated with **infection** and **biliary tract disorders**, not directly with chronic hemolytic anemia. - They are mainly composed of **calcium bilirubinate**, which arises in cases of **bacterial infections** or parasitic infestations. *Intestinal Obstruction* - While hemolytic anemia can have various complications, it is **not directly linked with intestinal obstruction**. - Obstruction typically arises from **mechanical causes** such as adhesions, tumors, or hernias, rather than from hemolytic processes. *Uric acid Renal Calculus* - Uric acid stones are formed due to conditions leading to **hyperuricemia** and are not a primary consequence of chronic hemolytic anemia. - They are often associated with **gout** and **certain metabolic disorders**, rather than hemolytic processes.
Question 1234: All of the following are features of Zollinger Ellison syndrome except:
- A. Severe diarrhoea
- B. Beta cell tumours of the pancreas (Correct Answer)
- C. Very high acid output
- D. Intractable peptic ulcers
Explanation: ***Beta cell tumours of the pancreas*** - Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES) is caused by **gastrinomas**, which are **neuroendocrine tumors** that typically arise from the **gastrin-producing G cells**, not the insulin-producing beta cells, of the pancreas or duodenum. - While pancreatic tumors are common in ZES, they are specifically **gastrinomas**, leading to excessive gastrin secretion. *Severe diarrhoea* - This is a common feature of ZES resulting from the **high acid output** reaching the small intestine. - The excessive acid inactivates pancreatic lipase, leading to **maldigestion** and stimulates fluid and electrolyte secretion, causing secretory diarrhea. *Very high acid output* - ZES is characterized by the **overproduction of gastrin**, which stimulates the parietal cells of the stomach to secrete large amounts of **hydrochloric acid**. - This leads to a significantly **increased basal and maximal acid output** in the stomach. *Intractable peptic ulcers* - The extremely high gastric acid secretion in ZES causes **multiple, recurrent, and often refractory peptic ulcers**, which can be located in atypical sites such as the jejunum. - These ulcers are typically difficult to treat with standard anti-ulcer medications due to the persistent gastric hypersecretion.
Surgery
6 questionsWhat is the best marker to assess prognosis after surgery for colon carcinoma?
All of the following are surgical options in the management of esophageal carcinoma except -
Which of the following statements about heart transplantation is false?
What is the most common cause of lateral aberrant thyroid tissue?
A child presented with blunt abdominal trauma, the first investigation to be done is -
Vacuum assisted closure is contraindicated in which of the following conditions -
NEET-PG 2015 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1231: What is the best marker to assess prognosis after surgery for colon carcinoma?
- A. CA 19-9
- B. CA-125
- C. Alpha fetoprotein
- D. CEA (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***CEA*** - Carcinoembryonic antigen (**CEA**) is a well-established tumor marker for monitoring colorectal cancer post-surgery and assessing prognosis [1]. - Elevated **CEA levels** after surgery may indicate recurrence or residual disease, making it valuable in follow-up care [1]. *CA 19-9* - Primarily associated with **pancreatic** and **biliary tract cancers**, and not specific for colon carcinoma. - While it may elevate in some gastrointestinal malignancies, it is not the best indicator for prognosis after colon cancer surgery. *Alpha fetoprotein* - Mostly used for monitoring **hepatocellular carcinoma** and germ cell tumors, not colorectal malignancies. - Elevated levels are not typically correlated with prognosis in colon cancer patients. *CA-125* - Mainly utilized as a tumor marker for **ovarian cancer** and some other malignancies, not specifically for colon carcinoma. - Its use in colorectal cancer prognosis is limited and lacks relevance in this context. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 253-254.
Question 1232: All of the following are surgical options in the management of esophageal carcinoma except -
- A. Ivor Lewis Approach
- B. McKeown's Approach
- C. Transhiatal removal
- D. Sistrunk operation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Sistrunk operation*** - The **Sistrunk operation** is a surgical procedure specifically designed for the removal of a **thyroglossal duct cyst**, not for esophageal carcinoma. - This procedure involves excising the cyst along with the central portion of the hyoid bone and the tract leading to the foramen cecum to prevent recurrence. *Ivor Lewis Approach* - The **Ivor Lewis approach** is a common and established surgical technique for **esophagectomy**, involving both abdominal and right thoracic incisions for tumor resection and reconstruction. - It is often used for tumors in the mid to distal esophagus. *Mckeown's Approach* - The **McKeown's approach** is another well-known surgical technique for **esophagectomy**, typically used for more proximal esophageal tumors. - This involves three incisions: abdominal, right thoracic, and cervical, allowing for extensive lymphadenectomy. *Transhiatal removal* - **Transhiatal esophagectomy** is a surgical option for esophageal cancer that involves abdominal and cervical incisions without a thoracic incision. - This approach is often favored in patients with significant comorbidities who may not tolerate a full thoracotomy.
Question 1233: Which of the following statements about heart transplantation is false?
- A. High pulmonary arterial resistance is a contraindication
- B. It is only orthotopic and not heterotopic (Correct Answer)
- C. Immunosuppression is started preoperatively
- D. A beating heart cadaver/donor is not always needed.
Explanation: ***It is only orthotopic and not heterotopic*** - This statement is **FALSE**, making it the correct answer to this question asking for the false statement. - While **orthotopic transplantation** (replacing the recipient's heart with the donor heart in its normal anatomical position) is the overwhelmingly predominant method, **heterotopic transplantation** (leaving the recipient's heart in place and implanting the donor heart as an auxiliary "piggyback" pump) has been performed as an alternative technique. - Heterotopic transplantation, though rarely used in modern practice, was described and performed in select cases, particularly when the donor heart is undersized or when severe pulmonary hypertension is present. Therefore, the claim that heart transplantation is "only orthotopic" is incorrect. *Immunosuppression is started preoperatively* - This statement is **TRUE**. - **Immunosuppressive therapy** is typically initiated intraoperatively or in some protocols may begin preoperatively to prevent hyperacute and acute rejection. - Induction immunosuppression aims to suppress the recipient's immune response before it can react to the transplanted organ, improving early graft survival. *High pulmonary arterial resistance is a contraindication* - This statement is **TRUE**. - **Fixed pulmonary hypertension** with elevated pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR >4-5 Wood units or transpulmonary gradient >15 mmHg unresponsive to vasodilators) is a **contraindication** for isolated heart transplantation. - The donor right ventricle may not be able to pump against high pulmonary pressures, leading to acute right heart failure. - Such patients may require combined heart-lung transplantation or medical optimization to reduce pulmonary vascular resistance before transplantation can be considered. *A beating heart cadaver/donor is not always needed* - This statement is considered **TRUE**, though with important caveats. - Traditionally, heart transplantation has relied almost exclusively on **beating-heart donors** (brain-dead donors with maintained cardiac function) to ensure organ viability. - The statement acknowledges that in rare circumstances or with advanced preservation techniques, the absolute requirement for a beating heart might be questioned, though in practical terms beating-heart donation remains the standard for heart transplantation.
Question 1234: What is the most common cause of lateral aberrant thyroid tissue?
- A. Ectopic thyroid tissue due to developmental anomalies
- B. Thyroid tissue in the mediastinum
- C. Metastatic thyroid carcinoma (Correct Answer)
- D. Lingual thyroid
Explanation: ***Metastatic thyroid carcinoma*** - **Metastatic papillary thyroid carcinoma** to cervical lymph nodes is the most common cause of lateral aberrant thyroid tissue - The term "lateral aberrant thyroid" is a **historical misnomer** that has been abandoned in modern thyroid surgery - What was previously thought to be ectopic thyroid tissue in lateral neck nodes is virtually always **metastatic disease** - Papillary thyroid carcinoma commonly metastasizes to **regional lymph nodes**, which then contain thyroid follicular cells - This represents **lymph node metastases**, not developmental ectopia *Ectopic thyroid tissue due to developmental anomalies* - True developmental ectopia of thyroid tissue in the **lateral neck is extremely rare to nonexistent** - The thyroid gland originates from the **foramen cecum in the midline** and descends along the thyroglossal duct - Developmental ectopic thyroid occurs in **midline structures** (lingual thyroid, thyroglossal duct remnants), not laterally - The concept of "lateral aberrant thyroid" as a developmental anomaly has been **disproven** *Thyroid tissue in the mediastinum* - Mediastinal thyroid tissue represents **substernal or retrosternal goiter** that has descended into the chest - This describes a different anatomical location (mediastinum vs. lateral neck) - Not related to lateral cervical masses *Lingual thyroid* - Lingual thyroid is ectopic thyroid tissue located at the **base of the tongue** - This is a **midline structure**, not a lateral neck finding - Represents failure of thyroid descent during embryological development
Question 1235: A child presented with blunt abdominal trauma, the first investigation to be done is -
- A. USG (Correct Answer)
- B. CT Scan
- C. Complete Hemogram
- D. Abdominal X-ray
Explanation: ***USG*** - An **ultrasound (USG)** is the **first-line imaging investigation** for blunt abdominal trauma in children due to its **non-invasive nature**, lack of radiation exposure, and rapid bedside availability. - **FAST (Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma)** effectively identifies the presence of **free fluid** (indicating internal bleeding/hemoperitoneum) and can assess solid organ injuries, particularly the **spleen and liver**. - It is the **preferred initial investigation in hemodynamically stable pediatric patients**. *CT Scan* - A **CT scan** is more sensitive and provides detailed anatomical information but involves significant **radiation exposure**, which is a major concern in children. - It is usually reserved for cases where USG is inconclusive, there is a **high clinical suspicion of severe injury**, or when determining the need for surgical intervention in hemodynamically stable patients. *Complete Hemogram* - A **complete hemogram** assesses blood components like hemoglobin and hematocrit, which are crucial for evaluating blood loss, but it is a **laboratory test, not an imaging investigation**. - While important for initial assessment and serial monitoring, it doesn't provide immediate information about the **location, type, or extent of internal abdominal injuries**. *Abdominal X-ray* - An **abdominal X-ray** has limited utility in blunt abdominal trauma as it is primarily useful for detecting **hollow viscus perforation (free air)** or bony fractures. - It does not effectively visualize soft tissue injuries, fluid collections, or solid organ damage, making it unsuitable as the primary diagnostic tool in blunt abdominal trauma.
Question 1236: Vacuum assisted closure is contraindicated in which of the following conditions -
- A. Chronic osteomyelitis
- B. Large amount of necrotic tissue with eschar (Correct Answer)
- C. Abdominal wound
- D. Surgical wound dehiscence
Explanation: ***Large amount of necrotic tissue with eschar*** - The presence of a large amount of **necrotic tissue** and **eschar** is a contraindication for VAC therapy because it prevents effective contact between the foam and viable tissue, impairing wound healing. - Eschar acts as a physical barrier, trapping bacteria and hindering the proper function of negative pressure by preventing uniform pressure distribution and fluid removal from the wound bed. *Chronic osteomyelitis* - While chronic osteomyelitis can be challenging, VAC therapy can sometimes be used as an **adjunctive treatment** after surgical debridement to manage the wound and promote granulation tissue formation. - It helps in controlling infection and closing the wound by removing exudates, reducing edema, and improving blood flow. *Abdominal wound* - VAC therapy is commonly used for **abdominal wounds**, especially after damage control surgery or in cases of open abdomen management. - It facilitates closure by promoting granulation, reducing edema, and protecting the abdominal contents. *Surgical wound dehiscence* - **Surgical wound dehiscence** is a common indication for VAC therapy, as it helps to manage the open wound, promote granulation tissue, and prepare the wound for eventual secondary closure or grafting. - VAC therapy reduces surgical site infections, removes exudates, and enhances tissue perfusion, leading to better wound healing outcomes.