NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Japanese encephalitis vaccine in routine schedule is given in how many doses -

Two doses (at 9-12 months and 15-18 months). ***Two doses (at 9-12 months and 15-18 months)*** - The **routine JE vaccination schedule in India** as per NTAGI and IAP recommendations involves **two doses**. - **First dose** is given at **9-12 months** of age. - **Second dose** is administered at **15-18 months** (or up to 24 months), approximately **6-12 months after the first dose**. - This provides adequate long-term protection against Japanese encephalitis in endemic areas. *Single dose vaccine* - A single dose does **not provide adequate long-lasting protection** against Japanese encephalitis. - The **immune response** from a single dose is insufficient for routine immunization. - Two doses are required to ensure protective antibody levels. *Three doses 1 month apart followed by a booster if needed* - This schedule is **not part of the routine immunization program** for JE in India. - The standard routine schedule involves **only 2 primary doses**, not three. - Rapid three-dose schedules may be used in specific outbreak situations but not for routine immunization. *Three doses with the second dose 1 month and 3rd dose 6 months after the first dose* - This three-dose schedule is **not the routine JE vaccination schedule** in India. - This may be confused with schedules for other vaccines or older JE vaccine protocols. - The current **routine schedule requires only 2 doses** at specified age intervals.

Q: What condition is suggested by eyelid papules and a hoarse cry in a child?

Lipoid proteinosis. ***Lipoid proteinosis*** - This condition is characterized by **hoarseness from infancy** due to deposition in the vocal cords and characteristic **beaded papules on the eyelids** (moniliform blepharosis). - Also known as **Urbach-Wiethe disease**, it is a rare autosomal recessive disorder resulting from mutations in the **ECM1 gene**, leading to abnormal deposition of hyaline material in various tissues. *Croup* - Croup typically presents with a **barking cough** and **stridor**, often following a viral upper respiratory infection. - It does not cause eyelid papules or chronic hoarseness from infancy, but rather acute respiratory distress. *Acrodermatitis enteropathica* - This is a rare autosomal recessive disorder of **zinc malabsorption**, leading to a classic triad of **dermatitis**, **diarrhea**, and **alopecia**. - It does not involve eyelid papules or hoarseness as primary features. *Congenital syphilis* - Congenital syphilis can cause a wide range of manifestations, including skin rashes, bone abnormalities, and rhinitis ("snuffles"), but eyelid papules and chronic hoarseness are not typical presenting features. - Diagnosis is usually confirmed by serological tests for syphilis.

Q: Which of the following is used to decrease the duration and severity of acute diarrhea?

Zn. ***Zn*** - **Zinc supplementation** has been shown to reduce the **duration** and **severity** of acute diarrhea, particularly in children in developing countries [1]. - It plays a crucial role in **immune function** and **intestinal integrity**, which helps in recovery from diarrheal episodes [1]. *Mg* - **Magnesium** is an essential mineral, but it is not directly used to decrease the duration or severity of acute diarrhea. - In fact, high doses of magnesium can act as a **laxative** and may worsen diarrhea. *Fe* - **Iron** is vital for red blood cell formation and oxygen transport, but it does not directly impact the duration or severity of acute diarrhea. - Iron supplementation is primarily used to treat **anemia**. *Ca* - **Calcium** is important for bone health and various metabolic processes, but it is not a primary intervention for reducing the duration or severity of acute diarrhea. - While sometimes used for mild digestive issues, it does not have the same evidence base as zinc for acute diarrhea.

Q: Funneling in cervicogram is seen in -

Weak cervical tissue leading to pregnancy complications. ***Weak cervical tissue leading to pregnancy complications*** - **Funneling** in a cervicogram (or during transvaginal ultrasound) indicates the shortening and dilation of the internal cervical os, forming a funnel shape. - This finding is a key indicator of **cervical insufficiency** or **weak cervical tissue**, which significantly increases the risk of preterm birth and other pregnancy complications due to the inability of the cervix to retain the pregnancy. *During labor* - While the cervix dilates and effaces during labor, the term "funneling" specifically refers to the premature opening of the internal os seen *before* active labor, often indicative of **cervical insufficiency**. - During active labor, the entire cervix generally dilates progressively, rather than forming a distinct funnel shape. *Cervical ectopic* - A **cervical ectopic pregnancy** involves the implantation of a fertilized egg within the cervical canal. - While it affects the cervix, the defining characteristic is the presence of an implanted gestational sac, not specifically cervical funneling. *During TVS* - **Transvaginal ultrasound (TVS)** is the primary method used to assess cervical length and detect funneling. - Funneling itself is a sign of cervical changes, observed *via* TVS, rather than TVS *causing* or *being* the funneling.

Q: What size of Hegar's dilator, when passed through the internal os, indicates cervical incompetence?

8 or more. ***8 or more*** - The passage of a **Hegar's dilator of size 8 mm or larger** through the internal os without resistance is a classic diagnostic criterion for **cervical incompetence** or insufficiency. - This finding suggests a **weakened cervix** that is unable to withstand the pressure of a growing pregnancy, leading to recurrent mid-trimester pregnancy losses or preterm births. *4* - A Hegar's dilator of size 4 mm is relatively small and can often pass through a normal, non-pregnant **cervical os** without indicating pathology. - This size would not be considered abnormal and does not signify **cervical incompetence**. *6* - While a Hegar's dilator of 6 mm is larger than 4 mm, it is still generally within the range that might pass through a normal cervix, especially in **multiparous women**, without definitively diagnosing incompetence. - The threshold for diagnosing **cervical incompetence** is typically set higher, at 8 mm or more. *10* - While the passage of a 10 mm Hegar's dilator would certainly indicate **cervical incompetence**, the diagnostic cutoff is typically considered to be **8 mm or more**. - Any dilator **equal to or greater than 8 mm** confirms the diagnosis, so 10 mm is not the *only* size indicating incompetence.

Q: Which one of the following statements is false about Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis in children?

Boys are affected more frequently. ***Boys are affected more frequently*** - This statement is **false** for xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis (XGP) in children. XGP typically shows a **female predominance** in children, similar to adults. - The disease is more common in girls due to the higher incidence of **urinary tract infections** and **urinary obstruction** in females. *It affects the kidney diffusely more frequently than focally* - This statement is **true**. XGP predominantly presents as a **diffuse disease** affecting the entire kidney in approximately **80-90% of cases**. - **Focal XGP** (10-20% of cases) can occur and may mimic a renal tumor, but diffuse involvement is the classic and more common presentation in both adults and children [1]. *Clinical presentation in children is the same as in adults* - This statement is **true**. Children with XGP often present with similar symptoms to adults, including **fever**, **flank pain**, **recurrent urinary tract infections**, and a **palpable abdominal mass** [1]. - **Failure to thrive** and **anemia** are also common in pediatric cases, reflecting the chronic nature of the infection. *Often affects those younger than 8 years of age* - This statement is **true**. XGP, when it occurs in children, often presents in the **younger age group**, typically before 8 years of age. - This demographic observation highlights the importance of considering XGP in young children with persistent urinary tract symptoms and imaging abnormalities. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Kidney, pp. 939-940.

Q: Most common type of TAPVC is -

Supracardiac. ***Supracardiac*** - This is the **most common type** of Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection (TAPVC), accounting for about 50% of cases. - Pulmonary veins drain into a **common vertical vein** that ascends to connect with the **innominate vein** or superior vena cava. *Cardiac* - In this type, the pulmonary veins drain directly into the **right atrium** or a coronary sinus. - It is relatively less common than the supracardiac type. *Infracardiac* - This is the **least common** and most severe type, where the pulmonary veins drain below the diaphragm, typically into the portal vein, ductus venosus, or inferior vena cava. - It is often associated with **pulmonary venous obstruction**, leading to cyanosis and pulmonary hypertension. *Multiple* - While it is possible to have anomalous drainage sites, **multiple sites** draining into different systemic veins are less common than a single primary site for TAPVC. - TAPVC is typically classified into specific anatomic types rather than 'multiple' as a primary category.

Q: Which of the following statements about shock in children is correct?

Tachycardia is a sensitive indicator of shock in children.. ***Tachycardia is a sensitive indicator of shock in children.*** - **Tachycardia** is often the first and most reliable sign of **compensated shock** in children, as their cardiovascular system initially maintains cardiac output by increasing heart rate. - Children have a remarkable ability to compensate for significant fluid loss, and an elevated heart rate helps maintain **perfusion** before blood pressure drops. *Mottling of extremities is an early sign of shock.* - **Mottling** of extremities is typically a sign of **decompensated shock** and indicates significant vasoconstriction and poor tissue perfusion. - It is a **late sign** that suggests the child's compensatory mechanisms are failing. *Confusion and stupor are early signs of shock.* - **Altered mental status**, such as confusion or stupor, usually indicates **severe shock** and reduced cerebral perfusion. - These are generally **late signs** of shock, appearing after initial compensatory mechanisms have failed. *Respiratory rate is a more sensitive indicator of shock than heart rate.* - While **tachypnea** can be present in shock due to metabolic acidosis or compensatory mechanisms, **tachycardia** is a more consistently sensitive and earlier indicator of circulatory compromise. - Respiratory changes can also be influenced by other factors like pain, fever, or respiratory illness, making heart rate a more specific initial marker for shock.

Q: At what rate should dopamine be administered for inotropic support in a severely dehydrated child?

1-5 microgram/kg/min. ***1-5 microgram/kg/min*** - This dosage range of **dopamine** primarily targets **beta-1 adrenergic receptors**, leading to **increased myocardial contractility** (inotropic effect) and improved cardiac output. - It is appropriate for managing **hypotension** and poor perfusion in a severely dehydrated child after initial **fluid resuscitation** has been attempted but was insufficient. *0.1-0.5 microgram/kg/min* - This very low dose range of dopamine primarily stimulates **dopaminergic receptors** in the renal and mesenteric vascular beds. - Its main effect is **vasodilation** in these areas, which increases blood flow to the kidneys and gut, but it provides minimal to no **inotropic support**. *1-5 mg/kg/min* - This dosage is significantly too high, as it is in milligrams rather than micrograms. - Administering dopamine at this rate would lead to severe **toxicity**, including profound **tachycardia**, ventricular arrhythmias, and extreme **vasoconstriction**. *10-15 mg/kg/min* - This dopamine dosage is also excessively high, again due to being in milligrams per minute rather than micrograms per minute. - Such a dose would be **lethal**, causing catastrophic cardiovascular collapse due to overwhelming **alpha-adrenergic stimulation** and severe arrhythmias.

Q: Which test is used to diagnose congenital syphilis in a newborn born to a syphilitic mother?

Detection of IgM. ***Detection of IgM*** - The presence of **IgM antibodies** in a newborn suggests active infection because maternal IgM does not cross the placenta. - This indicates the newborn's immune system has produced its own antibodies in response to *Treponema pallidum* infection. *Detection of IgG* - **Maternal IgG antibodies can cross the placenta**, so detecting IgG in a newborn does not differentiate between passive transfer from the mother and active newborn infection. - While total IgG might be elevated due to infection, specific IgM is a more reliable indicator of active congenital syphilis. *ZN staining* - **Ziehl-Neelsen (ZN) staining** is used to identify **acid-fast bacteria**, such as *Mycobacterium tuberculosis*, not spirochetes like *Treponema pallidum*. - *Treponema pallidum* is typically visualized using darkfield microscopy or silver stains due to its thin, helical shape. *FTA-ABS test* - The **Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption (FTA-ABS)** test detects specific antibodies against *Treponema pallidum* but primarily measures IgG, which can be maternally transferred. - While it confirms exposure, an IgM-specific FTA-ABS would be more definitive for congenital syphilis, but the general FTA-ABS test alone is not sufficient to diagnose active infection in a newborn.

Question 1

Japanese encephalitis vaccine in routine schedule is given in how many doses -

Accepted Answer

Two doses (at 9-12 months and 15-18 months)

Answer

Single dose vaccine

Answer

Three doses 1 month apart followed by a booster if needed

Answer

Three doses with the second dose 1 month and 3rd dose 6 months after the first dose

Question 2

What condition is suggested by eyelid papules and a hoarse cry in a child?

Accepted Answer

Lipoid proteinosis

Answer

Croup

Answer

Acrodermatitis enteropathica

Answer

Congenital syphilis

Question 3

Which of the following is used to decrease the duration and severity of acute diarrhea?

Accepted Answer

Zn

Answer

Mg

Answer

Fe

Answer

Ca

Question 4

Funneling in cervicogram is seen in -

Accepted Answer

Weak cervical tissue leading to pregnancy complications

Answer

Cervical ectopic

Answer

During TVS

Answer

During labor

Question 5

What size of Hegar's dilator, when passed through the internal os, indicates cervical incompetence?

Accepted Answer

8 or more

Answer

4

Answer

6

Answer

10

Question 6

Which one of the following statements is false about Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis in children?

Accepted Answer

Boys are affected more frequently

Answer

Clinical presentation in children is the same as in adults

Answer

Often affects those younger than 8 years of age

Answer

It affects the kidney diffusely more frequently than focally

Question 7

Most common type of TAPVC is -

Accepted Answer

Supracardiac

Answer

Cardiac

Answer

Infracardiac

Answer

Multiple

Question 8

Which of the following statements about shock in children is correct?

Accepted Answer

Tachycardia is a sensitive indicator of shock in children.

Answer

Mottling of extremities is an early sign of shock.

Answer

Confusion and stupor are early signs of shock.

Answer

Respiratory rate is a more sensitive indicator of shock than heart rate.

Question 9

At what rate should dopamine be administered for inotropic support in a severely dehydrated child?

Accepted Answer

1-5 microgram/kg/min

Answer

0.1-0.5 microgram/kg/min

Answer

1-5 mg/kg/min

Answer

10-15 mg/kg/min

Question 10

Which test is used to diagnose congenital syphilis in a newborn born to a syphilitic mother?

Accepted Answer

Detection of IgM

Answer

Detection of IgG

Answer

ZN staining

Answer

FTA-ABS test

NEET-PG 2015

Community Medicine

Dermatology

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pathology

Pediatrics