Community Medicine
1 questionsMost common cause of goiter in India is
NEET-PG 2015 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1191: Most common cause of goiter in India is
- A. Diffuse Endemic Goitre (Correct Answer)
- B. Papillary Carcinoma
- C. Toxic Multinodular Goitre
- D. Hashimoto's Thyroiditis
Explanation: ***Diffuse Endemic Goitre*** - **Iodine deficiency** is the leading cause of goiter globally, particularly in areas with poor iodine intake like some regions in India, leading to **diffuse endemic goiter** - In response to low iodine, the thyroid gland undergoes **hypertrophy** and **hyperplasia**, increasing in size in an attempt to capture more iodine for thyroid hormone synthesis - Despite the **Universal Salt Iodization (USI) program**, iodine deficiency disorders remain a significant public health concern in several Indian states *Papillary Carcinoma* - While it can cause a thyroid mass, **papillary carcinoma** is a malignant neoplastic condition, not the most common cause of generalized goiter - It presents as a **solitary or dominant nodule** and is not typically associated with widespread iodine deficiency - Accounts for only a small percentage of thyroid enlargements *Toxic Multinodular Goitre* - This condition involves multiple autonomously functioning nodules and primarily causes **hyperthyroidism**, not just goiter as a primary common presentation - More common in **elderly patients** and in regions with prior iodine deficiency (Jod-Basedow phenomenon) - Does not represent the most widespread cause of goiter in the general population of India *Hashimoto's Thyroiditis* - Hashimoto's is an **autoimmune disease** causing chronic lymphocytic thyroid inflammation and often hypothyroidism - While it can cause goiter, it typically produces a **firmer, less diffuse enlargement** than that seen with **iodine deficiency** - Not the most common cause of goiter in India, though its prevalence is increasing in urban areas
Internal Medicine
2 questionsThyroid nodule in a 65 year old male who is clinically euthyroid is most likely to be
A 65 year old female presents with a swelling in the neck diagnosed as a solitary thyroid nodule. The patient is investigated and a scan shows increased uptake of iodine. Serum T3 and T4 are elevated . Most probabe diagnosis is
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1191: Thyroid nodule in a 65 year old male who is clinically euthyroid is most likely to be
- A. Follicular adenoma (Correct Answer)
- B. Multinodular goiter
- C. Thyroid cyst
- D. Follicular carcinoma
Explanation: ***Follicular adenoma*** - Typically presents as a **solitary, well-defined nodule** in euthyroid patients, making it a common finding in this demographic. - It is often **benign** and can be differentiated from malignancies through imaging and cytological evaluation. *Multinodular goiter* - Usually involves multiple nodules rather than a **single nodule**, and patients often present with thyroid dysfunction [1]. - More common in women, and does not fit the profile of a solitary nodule in a euthyroid male. *Follicular Carcinoma* - While it can present as a nodule, it typically involves **elevated risk factors** such as family history and certain genetic mutations. - Euthyroid status alone is insufficient for a diagnosis of malignancy without further alarming features. *Thyroid Cyst* - Cysts are usually **fluid-filled** and may not present as solid nodules, which are common in cases described. - They tend to be **asymptomatic** and are generally **benign**, lacking the solid characteristics of a follicular adenoma.
Question 1192: A 65 year old female presents with a swelling in the neck diagnosed as a solitary thyroid nodule. The patient is investigated and a scan shows increased uptake of iodine. Serum T3 and T4 are elevated . Most probabe diagnosis is
- A. Benign Thyroid Nodule
- B. Solitary Toxic Adenoma (Correct Answer)
- C. Follicular Carcinoma
- D. Toxic Multinodular Goiter
Explanation: A **solitary toxic adenoma** is a single thyroid nodule that autonomously produces thyroid hormones, leading to **hyperthyroidism**. The increased iodine uptake on scan reflects its hyperfunctional state, and elevated **T3/T4** confirms hyperthyroidism. [2] - The combination of a **solitary nodule**, **increased iodine uptake**, and **elevated thyroid hormone levels** is pathognomonic for a solitary toxic adenoma. [2] *Benign Thyroid Nodule* - A **benign thyroid nodule** without hyperfunction would typically show **normal or decreased iodine uptake** and **normal T3/T4** levels. [2] - While benign, such a nodule alone does not explain the **elevated T3/T4** or **increased iodine uptake**. *Follicular Carcinoma* - **Follicular carcinoma** is a type of thyroid cancer that typically presents as a **cold nodule** (decreased iodine uptake) and is usually **non-functional**, meaning it does not cause hyperthyroidism with elevated T3/T4. [2] - The presence of **increased iodine uptake** and **hyperthyroidism** makes follicular carcinoma highly unlikely. *Toxic Multinodular Goiter* - A **toxic multinodular goiter** involves **multiple nodules**, not a solitary one, that are autonomously functional and cause hyperthyroidism. [1] - While it causes **hyperthyroidism** and **increased iodine uptake**, the key differentiating factor here is the presentation as a **solitary nodule**.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsWhich of the following precancerous conditions, if treated, has the highest likelihood of not leading to cancer?
NEET-PG 2015 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1191: Which of the following precancerous conditions, if treated, has the highest likelihood of not leading to cancer?
- A. Cervical intraepithelial Neoplasia (Correct Answer)
- B. Ductal carcinoma in situ of breast
- C. Lobular carcinoma in situ of breast
- D. Vaginal intraepithelial neoplasia
Explanation: ***Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)*** - CIN has a high success rate with treatment (e.g., **cryotherapy**, **LEEP**), often completely eradicating the dysplastic cells and preventing progression to **invasive cervical cancer**. - The effectiveness of screening via **Pap smears** allows for early detection and intervention, significantly reducing cancer risk. *Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) of breast* - While treatable, DCIS carries a higher risk of recurrence and progression to **invasive breast cancer** in the same or contralateral breast compared to CIN. - Treatment often involves **lumpectomy** with or without radiation, and sometimes **total mastectomy**, reflecting its more serious potential. *Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) of breast* - LCIS is largely considered a **risk indicator** for future invasive cancer in either breast, rather than a direct precursor that inevitably progresses. - Management often involves **close surveillance** or **chemoprevention**, as surgical excision does not prevent cancer development in other areas of the breast. *Vaginal intraepithelial neoplasia (VAIN)* - While treatable, VAIN is less common and often coexists with or follows **cervical or vulvar neoplasia**, indicating a broader field defect due to **HPV**. - Recurrence rates post-treatment can be significant, and patients often require long-term follow-up due to the continued risk of progression.
Radiology
1 questionsWhat is the best investigation for diagnosis and staging of renal cell carcinoma with thrombus extending into the IVC?
NEET-PG 2015 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1191: What is the best investigation for diagnosis and staging of renal cell carcinoma with thrombus extending into the IVC?
- A. CT scan (Correct Answer)
- B. Angiography
- C. Colour doppler imaging
- D. IVP
Explanation: ***CT scan*** - **CT scan** with contrast is the gold standard for diagnosing renal cell carcinoma and evaluating the extent of tumor thrombus into the **IVC**. - It provides detailed anatomical information on the tumor, staging, and involvement of adjacent structures. *Angiography* - **Angiography** is an invasive procedure primarily used for mapping the vascular supply of the tumor preoperatively or for embolization, not as a primary diagnostic tool. - It carries risks associated with contrast agents and catheterization and provides less comprehensive detail on tumor extension compared to CT. *Colour doppler imaging* - While useful for detecting blood flow and confirming the presence of a thrombus, **color Doppler imaging** (ultrasound) has limitations in accurately assessing the cranial extent of an IVC thrombus. - Its diagnostic accuracy is highly operator-dependent and less reliable for deep structures like the IVC compared to CT. *IVP* - **Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP)** assesses the urinary tract's structure and function but has limited utility in detecting soft tissue masses like renal cell carcinoma or IVC thrombus. - It involves radiation exposure and contrast material, and has largely been replaced by more advanced imaging techniques like CT and MRI for renal masses.
Surgery
5 questionsWhat is the commonest site of peptic ulcer?
Which of the following statements accurately describes a subtotal thyroidectomy?
Which of the following statements about Branchial cysts is true:
A 40-year-old male with chest trauma presents with breathlessness, decreased respiratory sounds on the right side, hyperresonance on percussion, and distended neck veins. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Which of the following stages of lip carcinoma does not have nodal involvement?
NEET-PG 2015 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1191: What is the commonest site of peptic ulcer?
- A. Second part of the duodenum
- B. Distal third of the stomach
- C. Pylorus of the stomach
- D. First part of the duodenum (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***First part of the duodenum*** - The **duodenal bulb** (first part of the duodenum) is the most common location for peptic ulcers due to its proximity to the pylorus, where it's exposed to **acidic chyme** and susceptible to **H. pylori infection**. - The **mucosal defenses** in the duodenum are often less robust compared to the stomach, making it more vulnerable to acid-pepsin aggression. *Second part of the duodenum* - Ulcers in the **second part of the duodenum** are relatively rare compared to the first part. - This section receives bile and pancreatic secretions which help to **neutralize stomach acid**, providing greater protection. *Distal third of the stomach* - Ulcers in the **distal third of the stomach** are less common than in the first part of the duodenum. - While **gastric ulcers** do occur, they are more frequently found in the **antrum or lesser curvature** of the stomach. *Pylorus of the stomach* - Ulcers can occur in the **pylorus**, but they are not as frequent as those in the **duodenal bulb**. - Pyloric ulcers are considered a type of **gastric ulcer** and can be associated with gastric outlet obstruction.
Question 1192: Which of the following statements accurately describes a subtotal thyroidectomy?
- A. Removal of one lobe and isthmus
- B. Removal of 1 lobe with isthmus and the second lobe partially (Correct Answer)
- C. Removal of both lobes leaving behind 6-8 grams of tissue
- D. Removal of entire thyroid with cervical lymphnodes
Explanation: ***Removal of 1 lobe with isthmus and the second lobe partially*** - A **subtotal thyroidectomy** involves removing one complete thyroid lobe along with the isthmus, and partially resecting the contralateral lobe, leaving behind a small remnant of approximately **4-8 grams** on one side. - This procedure preserves parathyroid function and the recurrent laryngeal nerve while reducing thyroid tissue, commonly used for **bilateral multinodular goiter** or **Graves' disease**. - The retained remnant maintains some thyroid function and reduces the risk of permanent **hypothyroidism** and **hypoparathyroidism**. *Removal of one lobe and isthmus* - This describes a **hemithyroidectomy** or **thyroid lobectomy**, which involves complete removal of one lobe with the isthmus. - It is typically performed for **unilateral thyroid nodules**, **follicular neoplasms**, or small **well-differentiated thyroid cancers**. - It does not involve any resection of the contralateral lobe. *Removal of both lobes leaving behind 6-8 grams of tissue* - This would describe a **bilateral subtotal thyroidectomy**, where tissue is left on both sides. - While historically performed, this is **not the standard definition** of "subtotal thyroidectomy," which specifically refers to leaving remnant tissue on only one side. - Modern practice has largely replaced this with more definitive procedures. *Removal of entire thyroid with cervical lymphnodes* - This describes a **total thyroidectomy with central or lateral neck dissection**, performed for **thyroid malignancies** with lymph node involvement. - It aims to achieve complete oncological clearance and is followed by radioactive iodine therapy in differentiated thyroid cancers. - No thyroid tissue is intentionally preserved.
Question 1193: Which of the following statements about Branchial cysts is true:
- A. 50-70% are seen in lungs
- B. They are premalignant lesions
- C. Infection is uncommon in branchial cysts
- D. Most common site is lateral neck (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Most common site is lateral neck*** - **Branchial cleft cysts** typically present as a mass in the **lateral neck**, anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. - They are congenital anomalies resulting from incomplete obliteration of the branchial clefts during embryonic development. *50-70% are seen in lungs* - This statement is incorrect; branchial cysts are **cervical anomalous masses** arising from the branchial apparatus, not primarily found in the lungs. - Lung lesions are more commonly associated with congenital pulmonary airway malformations or bronchogenic cysts, which differ in origin. *They are premalignant lesions* - Branchial cysts are generally **benign lesions** and do not typically transform into malignancy. - While rare cases of carcinoma arising within a branchial cleft cyst have been reported, they are not considered routinely premalignant. *Infection is uncommon in branchial cysts* - Conversely, infection is a **common complication** of branchial cysts, often leading to sudden enlargement, pain, and erythema. - The presence of internal fluid and epithelial lining makes them susceptible to bacterial colonization and subsequent abscess formation.
Question 1194: A 40-year-old male with chest trauma presents with breathlessness, decreased respiratory sounds on the right side, hyperresonance on percussion, and distended neck veins. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Tension Pneumothorax (Correct Answer)
- B. Flail Chest
- C. Myocardial Infarction
- D. Cardiac Tamponade
Explanation: ***Tension Pneumothorax*** - The classic triad of **breathlessness**, **decreased breath sounds** on the affected side, and **hyperresonance** on percussion following chest trauma is highly indicative of a tension pneumothorax. - **Distended neck veins** (jugular venous distension) occur due to increased intrathoracic pressure impeding venous return to the heart. *Cardiac Tamponade* - Characterized by **Beck's triad**: hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and jugular venous distension. - While **distended neck veins** are present, the absence of muffled heart sounds, the presence of decreased breath sounds, and hyperresonance point away from tamponade. *Flail Chest* - Defined by at least two contiguous ribs fractured in at least two places, leading to a **paradoxical movement** of the chest wall during respiration. - The key diagnostic feature of flail chest (paradoxical chest wall movement) is not described, nor are the breath sounds or percussion findings consistent with this diagnosis. *Myocardial Infarction* - Typically presents with **sudden chest pain**, often radiating to the left arm or jaw, and may cause breathlessness. - It does not cause **decreased breath sounds**, **hyperresonance**, or directly lead to these specific localized chest findings after trauma.
Question 1195: Which of the following stages of lip carcinoma does not have nodal involvement?
- A. T2N1
- B. T3N0 (Correct Answer)
- C. T2N2
- D. T1N1
Explanation: ***T3N0*** - The **'N' classification** in the TNM staging system refers to **nodal involvement**. A stage with **'N0' indicates no regional lymph node metastasis**. - A **T3 lesion** signifies a large primary tumor, but if it's accompanied by **N0**, it means there's no evidence of spread to the lymph nodes. *T2N1* - The **'N1' classification** indicates the presence of **regional lymph node metastasis**, specifically in a **single ipsilateral lymph node** that is 3 cm or less in its greatest dimension. - This stage therefore **does have nodal involvement**, contradicting the premise of the question. *T2N2* - The **'N2' classification** signifies more advanced regional lymph node metastasis, such as a **single ipsilateral lymph node** greater than 3 cm but not more than 6 cm. - It could also refer to **multiple ipsilateral lymph nodes**, none greater than 6 cm, or bilateral/contralateral lymph nodes, none greater than 6 cm. In all these cases, **nodal involvement is present**. *T1N1* - Similar to T2N1, the **'N1' component** in T1N1 indicates the presence of **regional lymph node metastasis** in a single ipsilateral lymph node of 3 cm or less. - Therefore, this stage **does involve nodal spread**, despite having a smaller primary tumor (T1).