NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Therapeutic phlebotomy is not done in which of the following conditions?

CML. CML - **Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)** is typically treated with targeted therapies like **Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors** (e.g., Imatinib), not phlebotomy [1]. - Therapeutic phlebotomy is ineffective in managing the **hypercellularity** or symptoms associated with this condition compared to other conditions [1]. *Polycythemia vera* - Therapeutic phlebotomy is a key treatment in **Polycythemia vera** to reduce **hyperviscosity** symptoms. - This condition features increased red blood cell mass, which is directly addressed by phlebotomy. *Hemochromatosis* - In **Hemochromatosis**, phlebotomy is employed to lower **iron overload** by removing excess iron from the body. - This reduces the risk of complications such as **liver cirrhosis** and **diabetes** associated with iron excess. *Porphyria cutanea tarda* - Therapeutic phlebotomy is sometimes used in cases of **Porphyria cutanea tarda** to manage iron levels as a potential precipitating factor [2]. - It helps alleviate symptoms and prevent complications associated with **photosensitivity** and skin lesions [2].

Q: Chronic hemolytic anaemia is associated with which of the following -

Black Pigment stone of the gall bladder. ***Black Pigment stone of the gall bladder*** - Chronic hemolytic anemia leads to increased **bilirubin**, particularly unconjugated bilirubin, which can result in the formation of **black pigment stones** [1]. - These stones are associated with conditions causing **excess bilirubin production**, such as sickle cell disease and thalassemia. *Brown Pigment stone of the gall bladder* - Brown pigment stones are primarily associated with **infection** and **biliary tract disorders**, not directly with chronic hemolytic anemia. - They are mainly composed of **calcium bilirubinate**, which arises in cases of **bacterial infections** or parasitic infestations. *Intestinal Obstruction* - While hemolytic anemia can have various complications, it is **not directly linked with intestinal obstruction**. - Obstruction typically arises from **mechanical causes** such as adhesions, tumors, or hernias, rather than from hemolytic processes. *Uric acid Renal Calculus* - Uric acid stones are formed due to conditions leading to **hyperuricemia** and are not a primary consequence of chronic hemolytic anemia. - They are often associated with **gout** and **certain metabolic disorders**, rather than hemolytic processes.

Q: What is a common cause of unilateral dysmenorrhea?

One horn of malformed uterus. ***One horn of malformed uterus*** - **Obstructed rudimentary horn** with functional endometrium or **obstructed hemivagina** in uterine anomalies is a **classic cause of unilateral dysmenorrhea**. - The obstruction leads to accumulation of menstrual blood in the non-communicating horn or hemivagina, causing **severe cyclical unilateral pelvic pain** that worsens progressively with each menstrual cycle. - This typically presents in **adolescents or young women** after menarche and is a well-recognized gynecological emergency requiring surgical intervention. - Examples include: **unicornuate uterus with non-communicating rudimentary horn**, **uterus didelphys with obstructed hemivagina** (OHVIRA syndrome). *Endometriosis causing unilateral pain* - While endometriosis causes **dysmenorrhea**, it typically presents with **bilateral pelvic pain** and diffuse tenderness. - Endometriosis pain is usually **generalized** rather than strictly unilateral, though asymmetric involvement can occur. - The pain is associated with **deep dyspareunia**, **dyschezia**, and chronic pelvic pain rather than strictly unilateral cyclical pain. *Small fibroid at the utero tubal junction* - Fibroids (leiomyomas) can cause **dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia**, but unilateral presentation is uncommon. - Cornual fibroids may cause localized pain, but this is not a typical or common presentation of **unilateral dysmenorrhea**. - Pain from fibroids is usually related to **degeneration** or pressure effects rather than cyclical unilateral menstrual pain. *All of the options* - While multiple conditions can cause pelvic pain, **obstructed müllerian anomalies** (one horn of malformed uterus) are the **most classic and important cause** of true unilateral dysmenorrhea. - This is the diagnosis that must be ruled out when a patient presents with unilateral cyclical pelvic pain.

Q: Which of the following statements about abdominal pregnancy is true?

Leaving the placenta behind can lead to infection.. ***f6629bc8-61b2-4393-bb4c-9c32cd943e34*** - **Placenta acreta-like implantation** of the placenta into intra-abdominal organs or the abdominal wall makes removal dangerous due to potential damage and massive hemorrhage. - While leaving it in place can lead to serious complications like **infection**, **abscess formation**, or **secondary hemorrhage** as it degenerates, the risks of immediate removal often outweigh these, necessitating careful observation and management. *020c0067-d7b2-4fc2-85ae-2d6ba40ab437* - **Primary abdominal pregnancy** is extremely rare, accounting for less than 1% of all extrauterine pregnancies. - Abdominal pregnancies are generally **secondary** due to tubal abortion or rupture with subsequent reimplantation. *3560b92d-a63d-4966-8872-e4f56a82882f* - **Fetal survival rates** in abdominal pregnancies are very low, with a high incidence of **fetal anomalies** and **perinatal mortality**. - The abnormal placental implantation and lack of amniotic fluid protection lead to significant **growth restriction** and compression deformities. *5ab987e0-68ca-43f2-a8f2-238a5eb0c4f8* - The decision to remove the **placenta** in an abdominal pregnancy is complex and depends on its implantation site; often, it is left in situ due to the high risk of **hemorrhage** from attempting removal. - Removing the placenta can cause **uncontrollable bleeding**, especially if it is attached to vital organs or large blood vessels.

Q: Which of the following is a side effect of Progestin Only Pills (POPs)?

Ovarian cysts. ***Ovarian cysts*** - **Functional ovarian cysts** are a known side effect of Progestin Only Pills (**POPs**), as POPs can alter the normal ovulatory cycle but usually do not completely suppress follicular development. - While generally benign and self-resolving, they can cause pain and discomfort. *Venous thromboembolism* - **POPs** are not significantly associated with an increased risk of **venous thromboembolism** due to the absence of estrogen, unlike combined hormonal contraceptives. - This is a key advantage of POPs, making them suitable for individuals at risk for thromboembolic events. *Increased risk of diabetes mellitus* - There is generally **no significant increased risk** of **diabetes mellitus** associated with POPs. - While some hormonal contraceptives *may* have minor effects on glucose metabolism, this is not a prominent or clinically significant side effect of POPs. *Ectopic pregnancy* - POPs **do not increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy**. In fact, they **reduce the overall pregnancy rate**, including ectopic pregnancies, by preventing ovulation. - However, if a pregnancy does occur while on POPs, there is a *slightly higher proportion* of those pregnancies that may be ectopic compared to unaided conceptions, but the *absolute risk* remains low.

Q: In which condition is the Hamilton Ruler test sign positive?

Anterior dislocation of shoulder. ***Anterior dislocation of shoulder*** - The **Hamilton Ruler test** is positive when a straight edge, like a ruler, can be laid across the **lateral aspect of the deltoid prominence** from the acromion to the lateral epicondyle. - This is indicative of the **loss of the normal rounded contour of the shoulder**, which occurs due to the humeral head dislocating anteriorly. *Acromioclavicular joint dislocation* - This condition presents with a **"step-off" deformity** at the AC joint and pain directly over the joint, but the overall contour of the shoulder glenohumeral joint is preserved. - The deltoid prominence remains intact, making the Hamilton Ruler test negative. *Posterior dislocation of shoulder* - In posterior dislocation, the **humeral head moves posteriorly**, and the anterior contour of the shoulder might appear flattened, but the characteristic prominent anterior bulge seen in anterior dislocation is absent. - The Hamilton Ruler test specifically assesses for the loss of the lateral deltoid prominence, which is more typical of anterior displacement. *Luxatio erecta* - **Luxatio erecta** is an inferior dislocation of the shoulder where the arm is fixed in an **abducted and externally rotated position**, making it appear "erect". - While a severe type of shoulder dislocation, the specific anatomical changes that lead to a positive Hamilton Ruler test (loss of lateral deltoid prominence with the humeral head moving anteriorly and medially) are not typically present in this configuration.

Q: What is the number of Barr bodies present in Klinefelter's syndrome?

1. ***1*** - **Klinefelter's syndrome** typically has a 47,XXY karyotype, meaning there are two X chromosomes [1]. - The number of Barr bodies is calculated as **N-1**, where N is the total number of X chromosomes. In this case, 2-1 = **1 Barr body** [1]. - This follows the principle that one X chromosome remains active while additional X chromosomes are inactivated [1]. *0* - **No Barr bodies** are found in individuals with a normal male karyotype (46,XY) or in Turner syndrome (45,XO), neither of which describes Klinefelter's syndrome [1]. - The presence of at least one Barr body indicates the presence of at least two X chromosomes. *2* - **Two Barr bodies** would be indicative of a karyotype with three X chromosomes (e.g., 47,XXX syndrome or Triple X syndrome), which is not Klinefelter's syndrome. - This calculation follows the N-1 rule: 3 X chromosomes - 1 = 2 Barr bodies. *3* - **Three Barr bodies** would correspond to a karyotype with four X chromosomes (e.g., 48,XXXX), which is an even rarer sex chromosome aneuploidy not associated with Klinefelter's syndrome. - The N-1 rule applies: 4 X chromosomes - 1 = 3 Barr bodies. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Genetic Disorders, pp. 173-174.

Q: A young male presents with a testicular mass on the right side. The AFP is elevated while the HCG is normal. The most appropriate next step is

Orchidectomy. ***Radical Inguinal Orchidectomy*** - In a patient who already presents with a **testicular mass** and **elevated AFP** (suggesting non-seminomatous germ cell tumor), the most appropriate next step is **radical inguinal orchidectomy**. - This procedure is both **diagnostic and therapeutic**, providing tissue for histopathological confirmation while removing the primary tumor. - The standard management sequence is: clinical examination → scrotal USG → tumor markers → **orchidectomy** → staging imaging → further treatment based on histology and stage. - Since the mass is already identified and tumor markers are done, proceeding directly to orchidectomy is appropriate. *USG* - Scrotal **ultrasound** is typically the **first imaging modality** when a testicular mass is suspected or palpated. - However, in this scenario, the mass is already clinically identified and tumor markers (AFP) have been measured, suggesting that initial workup including USG has likely been completed. - USG would have been the appropriate answer if the question asked for the "first investigation" before tumor markers were done. *Biopsy* - Direct **biopsy** of a testicular mass is **contraindicated** due to the high risk of tumor cell spillage along the needle tract, which can alter staging and worsen prognosis. - Testicular cancer is diagnosed via **radical inguinal orchidectomy**, not biopsy. *Wait and Watch* - A **wait and watch** approach is inappropriate and dangerous in the presence of a **testicular mass with elevated AFP**, which strongly suggests malignancy (non-seminomatous germ cell tumor). - Delayed treatment can lead to disease progression, metastasis, and poorer outcomes.

Q: A 45-year-old male presenting with penile cancer extending up to the glans penis is treated with which of the following surgical options?

Partial penectomy with a 2 cm margin. ***Partial penectomy with a 2 cm margin*** - For **penile cancer** confined to the glans, **partial penectomy** is the standard surgical approach to achieve local control while preserving penile length. - Historically, a **2 cm tumor-free margin** was recommended as the standard of care (reflected in older guidelines and exam questions). - **Modern evidence** suggests that narrower margins of **5-8 mm** are oncologically safe with comparable local control rates, but the **2 cm margin** was the traditional teaching and remains the expected answer for this question context. *Simple circumcision* - **Simple circumcision** is indicated for benign conditions like **phimosis** or **premalignant lesions** (carcinoma in situ), not for invasive cancer. - It does not provide adequate oncological clearance for **invasive penile cancer** and carries a high risk of **local recurrence**. *Partial penectomy with a 4 cm margin* - A **4 cm margin** is excessively radical and would result in unnecessary loss of penile length and function. - Even by historical standards, this exceeds the recommended **2 cm margin** and would cause significant functional and psychological morbidity. *Partial penectomy with inguinal lymph node dissection* - **Inguinal lymph node dissection** is indicated when there is **clinical or radiological evidence of lymph node metastasis** or high-risk pathological features. - Without evidence of nodal involvement, routine prophylactic lymphadenectomy is not performed due to significant morbidity (lymphedema, wound complications). - The question does not specify nodal involvement, making this option unnecessarily aggressive.

Question 1

Therapeutic phlebotomy is not done in which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

CML

Answer

Polycythemia vera

Answer

Hemochromatosis

Answer

Porphyria cutanea tarda

Question 2

Chronic hemolytic anaemia is associated with which of the following -

Accepted Answer

Black Pigment stone of the gall bladder

Answer

Brown Pigment stone of the gall bladder

Answer

Uric acid Renal Calculus

Answer

Intestinal Obstruction

Question 3

What is a common cause of unilateral dysmenorrhea?

Accepted Answer

One horn of malformed uterus

Answer

Small fibroid at the utero tubal junction

Answer

Endometriosis causing unilateral pain

Answer

All of the options

Question 4

Which of the following statements about abdominal pregnancy is true?

Accepted Answer

Leaving the placenta behind can lead to infection.

Answer

Primary abdominal pregnancy is a common condition.

Answer

Most fetuses in abdominal pregnancies survive to term.

Answer

Separation of the placenta is always necessary.

Question 5

What is the primary clinical advantage of the occipitoanterior position in childbirth?

Accepted Answer

It allows optimal fetal head flexion reducing the presenting diameter.

Answer

It is the most favorable position for vaginal delivery.

Answer

Anterior fontanelle is anterior in this position.

Answer

It is associated with shorter labor duration and fewer complications.

Question 6

Which of the following is a side effect of Progestin Only Pills (POPs)?

Accepted Answer

Ovarian cysts

Answer

Venous thromboembolism

Answer

Increased risk of diabetes mellitus

Answer

Ectopic pregnancy

Question 7

In which condition is the Hamilton Ruler test sign positive?

Accepted Answer

Anterior dislocation of shoulder

Answer

Posterior dislocation of shoulder

Answer

Luxatio erecta

Answer

Acromioclavicular joint dislocation

Question 8

What is the number of Barr bodies present in Klinefelter's syndrome?

Accepted Answer

1

Answer

0

Answer

2

Answer

3

Question 9

A young male presents with a testicular mass on the right side. The AFP is elevated while the HCG is normal. The most appropriate next step is

Accepted Answer

Orchidectomy

Answer

Biopsy

Answer

USG

Answer

Wait and Watch

Question 10

A 45-year-old male presenting with penile cancer extending up to the glans penis is treated with which of the following surgical options?

Accepted Answer

Partial penectomy with a 2 cm margin

Answer

Simple circumcision

Answer

Partial penectomy with a 4 cm margin

Answer

Partial penectomy with inguinal lymph node dissection

NEET-PG 2015

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Orthopaedics

Pathology

Surgery