NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Which anesthetic agent is safe to use in patients with elevated intracranial pressure (ICP)?

Thiopentone. ***Thiopentone*** - **Thiopentone** is a barbiturate that **decreases cerebral blood flow** and **metabolic rate**, leading to a reduction in intracranial pressure (ICP). - Its rapid onset and short duration of action make it suitable for inducing anesthesia in patients with elevated ICP. *Halothane* - **Halothane** is a potent **vasodilator** that can increase cerebral blood flow and consequently **elevate intracranial pressure**, making it unsuitable. - It also has a **slow onset and offset**, which can be problematic in emergent situations involving ICP. *Ketamine* - **Ketamine** is known to significantly **increase cerebral blood flow** and **intracranial pressure**, making it generally contraindicated in patients with elevated ICP. - It can also cause **dissociative states** and **emergence delirium**, which can further complicate neurological assessment. *Ether* - **Ether** is an older anesthetic agent known to cause **significant cerebral vasodilation** and an **increase in intracranial pressure**. - It is **highly flammable** and rarely used in modern clinical practice due to its side effects and safety profile.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a common complication of acute pancreatitis?

Hypercalcemia. ***Hypercalcemia*** - Acute pancreatitis is primarily associated with **increased amylase levels** and **hyperlipidemia**, while hypercalcemia is generally a separate condition. - It is not a classical complication or result of acute pancreatitis, but rather might be a cause in cases like **hyperparathyroidism** [1]. *Subcutaneous fat necrosis* - This occurs as a result of **lipolysis** during acute pancreatitis due to the release of **lipases** into circulation [1]. - It is characterized by the presence of **fat necrosis** on the abdomen or buttocks. *Increased amylase level* - A hallmark of acute pancreatitis is **elevated levels of amylase** and sometimes lipase, indicating pancreatic inflammation [1]. - The rise typically occurs within the first 24 hours of the onset of pancreatitis. *Hyperlipidemia* - This is often found in acute pancreatitis due to excess **lipolysis**, leading to elevated triglycerides in the blood [1]. - It can be both a cause and a consequence of pancreatic inflammation, contributing to the disease process [1].

Q: Uterine height is greater than gestational age of the patient in a case of all except -

IUGR. ***IUGR*** - In **Intrauterine Growth Restriction (IUGR)**, the fetus is smaller than expected for gestational age, leading to a **fundal height** that measures less than the actual gestational age. - This condition is characterized by a **restricted growth rate** of the fetus, causing the uterine size to be disproportionately small. *Fibroid uterus* - The presence of **uterine fibroids** (leiomyomas) can increase the overall size of the uterus beyond what would be expected for a given gestational age. - These benign tumors add bulk to the uterine wall, leading to a **larger-than-expected uterine height**. *Wrong dates* - Incorrect estimation of the **Last Menstrual Period (LMP)** or date of conception can lead to a miscalculation of gestational age. - If the gestational age is **underestimated**, the actual uterine height will appear greater than the calculated gestational age. *Polyhydramnios* - **Polyhydramnios** is a condition characterized by an **excessive accumulation of amniotic fluid**, which distends the uterus. - Increased amniotic fluid volume leads to a significantly **larger uterine size** and a fundal height greater than the gestational age.

Q: Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with malodorous vaginal discharge?

Bacterial vaginosis. ***Bacterial vaginosis*** - This condition is characterized by a "fishy" or **malodorous vaginal discharge**, particularly noticeable after intercourse due to the release of amines. - It results from an imbalance in the vaginal flora, with an overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria and a decrease in protective lactobacilli. *Chlamydia trachomatis* - Often presents with **asymptomatic cervicitis** or mild watery discharge; **malodorous discharge** is not a common or prominent symptom. - While it can cause pelvic pain or dysuria, it's not typically associated with the characteristic smell of bacterial vaginosis. *Trichomonas vaginalis* - Can cause a **frothy, yellow-green discharge** that may be malodorous, but the "fishy" odor is more classically associated with bacterial vaginosis. - Other common symptoms include intense itching, burning, and dyspareunia. *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* - Causes cervicitis, which can lead to a **purulent or mucopurulent vaginal discharge**, but it does not typically produce the distinctive malodor seen in bacterial vaginosis. - Infection can also manifest as dysuria, pelvic pain, or be asymptomatic.

Q: Which of the following conditions can lead to a prolonged second stage of labor?

All of the options. ***All of the options*** - **Uterine inertia**, **maternal exhaustion**, and **cephalopelvic disproportion** are all well-established causes of a prolonged second stage of labor. - These factors either impede effective uterine contractions, reduce the mother's ability to push, or create a physical barrier to fetal descent, respectively. *Uterine inertia* - Refers to **weak** or **ineffective uterine contractions** that are insufficient to expel the fetus. - This directly prolongs the second stage by failing to provide adequate propulsive force. *Maternal exhaustion* - Occurs when the mother becomes too **tired** to effectively push, often due to a long and difficult labor. - Reduced maternal effort leads to a lack of downward pressure, extending the second stage. *Cephalopelvic disproportion* - Characterized by a mismatch between the **size of the fetal head** and the **maternal pelvis**, preventing the head from descending. - This mechanical obstruction inevitably leads to a prolonged, and often ultimately arrested, second stage of labor.

Q: Common misdiagnosis of partial mole is

Threatened abortion. ***Threatened abortion*** - Partial moles often present with **vaginal bleeding** and a uterus size appropriate for gestational age, mimicking the symptoms of a **threatened abortion**. - **Fetal heartbeat** may be detectable in a partial mole, further complicating differentiation from a threatened abortion without detailed ultrasound or histological examination. *Choriocarcinoma* - **Choriocarcinoma** is a malignant tumor and a complication of molar pregnancy, not a common misdiagnosis of an early partial mole. - While both involve abnormal trophoblastic tissue, **choriocarcinoma** follows a molar pregnancy (or other gestations) and presents with systemic symptoms and very high hCG levels, distinct from the initial presentation of a partial mole. *Complete mole* - **Complete moles** are distinct from partial moles both genetically (46,XX or 46,XY with paternal origin only) and pathologically (no fetal tissue, generalized hydropic villi). - While both are types of molar pregnancy, they have different management and prognostic implications, and are distinct entities rather than a misdiagnosis of one for the other's initial presentation. *Ectopic pregnancy* - An **ectopic pregnancy** typically presents with pain and vaginal bleeding, along with an empty uterus on ultrasound. - While both involve abnormal pregnancy presentations, a **partial mole** usually shows some fetal tissue or identifiable placental tissue within the uterine cavity, distinguishing it from an ectopic pregnancy.

Q: Vertebra Plana is associated with all of the following conditions except -

Scheurmanns Disease. ***Scheurmanns Disease*** - **Scheuermann's disease** is characterized by **vertebral wedging** and **kyphosis**, not a complete flattening of the vertebral body (vertebra plana). - It involves irregularities of the vertebral endplates and Schmorl's nodes, differing from the destructive process seen in vertebra plana. *Histiocytosis X* - **Histiocytosis X** (Langerhans cell histiocytosis) can cause destructive lesions in the vertebral body, leading to its collapse and the appearance of **vertebra plana**. - This condition is common among young children and is associated with eosinophilic granuloma. *Leukemia* - **Leukemic infiltration** of bone marrow can weaken vertebral bodies, causing **osteopenia** and eventual collapse, which may present as vertebra plana. - This is often seen in pediatric patients with acute lymphoblastic leukemia. *Excessive use of systemic steroids* - Long-term or excessive use of **systemic corticosteroids** can lead to **osteoporosis**, which weakens bones and makes vertebral bodies prone to compression fractures and collapse into vertebra plana. - This iatrogenic cause results from the negative impact of steroids on bone formation and increased bone resorption.

Q: In which of the following deformities is the distal interphalangeal joint extended?

Boutonniere deformity. ***Boutonniere deformity*** - This deformity is characterized by **flexion of the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint** and **hyperextension of the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint**. - It often results from injury to the **central slip of the extensor tendon** at the PIP joint. *Swan neck deformity* - This deformity presents with **hyperextension of the PIP joint** and **flexion of the DIP joint**, which is the opposite of the question's premise. - It is commonly associated with underlying conditions like **rheumatoid arthritis** or **lupus**. *Z deformity* - This typically refers to the **thumb in rheumatoid arthritis**, where the carpometacarpal (CMC) joint is flexed, the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint is hyperextended, and the interphalangeal (IP) joint is flexed. - It does not primarily describe an extended DIP joint in the context of other fingers. *Claw Hand* - This deformity involves **hyperextension of the MCP joints** and **flexion of the PIP and DIP joints**, particularly of the fourth and fifth fingers. - It is caused by **ulnar nerve palsy**, leading to muscle imbalance.

Q: Which of the following is true about menetrier's disease

There is decreased gastric acid secretion. ***It is a premalignant condition*** - Menetrier's disease is characterized by **hyperplastic gastric mucosa** and is considered a **premalignant condition** due to its association with gastric cancers. - Regular surveillance and monitoring are recommended because of this increased risk for malignancy. *Affects the stomach and small intestines* - Menetrier's disease primarily **affects the stomach**, specifically leading to excessive growth of the gastric mucosa. - It does not typically involve the **small intestines**, which differentiates it from other gastrointestinal diseases. *There is increased gastric acid secretion* - In Menetrier's disease, there is actually a **decreased gastric acid secretion** due to the alteration of gastric mucosal structure. - This condition leads to **hypochlorhydria**, contrasting with conditions that increase acid secretion like Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. *Atrophied mucosal folds are seen* - Menetrier's disease is marked by **hypertrophy of the gastric folds**, not atrophy, resulting in **enlarged rugae** within the stomach. - Atrophied mucosal folds are more associated with conditions like chronic atrophic gastritis.

Q: Which of the following statements about development milestones at 6 months of age is incorrect?

Pincer grasp. ***Pincer grasp*** - The **pincer grasp** (using the index finger and thumb to pick up small objects) typically develops much later, usually around **9-12 months** of age. - At 6 months, infants are usually developing a **palmar grasp** or raking motion, not the fine motor control required for a pincer grasp. - This milestone is **NOT expected at 6 months**, making this the incorrect statement. *Watching self in mirror* - By 6 months, infants typically show **interest in their own reflection** and will watch themselves in a mirror, often smiling or vocalizing at the image. - This is a normal social-emotional milestone at this age. *Sitting in tripod position* - Many 6-month-old infants are able to sit with support, and often begin to sit independently for short periods, frequently using their arms for stability in a **tripod position**. - This is a common and expected gross motor milestone at this age. *Monosyllable sounds* - Around 6 months, infants commonly start to produce **monosyllable sounds** like "ba-ba," "da-da," or "ma-ma," as part of their early babbling. - This is a normal and expected language development milestone.

Question 1

Which anesthetic agent is safe to use in patients with elevated intracranial pressure (ICP)?

Accepted Answer

Thiopentone

Answer

Halothane

Answer

Ketamine

Answer

Ether

Question 2

Which of the following is NOT a common complication of acute pancreatitis?

Accepted Answer

Hypercalcemia

Answer

Subcutaneous fat necrosis

Answer

Hyperlipidemia

Answer

Increased amylase level

Question 3

Uterine height is greater than gestational age of the patient in a case of all except -

Accepted Answer

IUGR

Answer

Fibroid uterus

Answer

Wrong dates

Answer

Polyhydramnios

Question 4

Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with malodorous vaginal discharge?

Accepted Answer

Bacterial vaginosis

Answer

Chlamydia trachomatis

Answer

Trichomonas vaginalis

Answer

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Question 5

Which of the following conditions can lead to a prolonged second stage of labor?

Accepted Answer

All of the options

Answer

Cephalopelvic disproportion

Answer

Uterine inertia

Answer

Maternal exhaustion

Question 6

Common misdiagnosis of partial mole is

Accepted Answer

Threatened abortion

Answer

Choriocarcinoma

Answer

Complete mole

Answer

Ectopic pregnancy

Question 7

Vertebra Plana is associated with all of the following conditions except -

Accepted Answer

Scheurmanns Disease

Answer

Leukemia

Answer

Excessive use of systemic steroids

Answer

Histiocytosis X

Question 8

In which of the following deformities is the distal interphalangeal joint extended?

Accepted Answer

Boutonniere deformity

Answer

Swan neck deformity

Answer

Claw Hand

Answer

Z deformity

Question 9

Which of the following is true about menetrier's disease

Accepted Answer

There is decreased gastric acid secretion

Answer

Atrophied mucosal folds are seen

Answer

It is premalignant condition

Answer

It causes increased gastric acid secretion

Question 10

Which of the following statements about development milestones at 6 months of age is incorrect?

Accepted Answer

Pincer grasp

Answer

Watching self in mirror

Answer

Sitting in tripod position

Answer

Monosyllable sounds

NEET-PG 2015

Anesthesiology

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Orthopaedics

Pathology

Pediatrics