Anatomy
1 questionsEmbryo gets implanted at what stage of development?
NEET-PG 2015 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1051: Embryo gets implanted at what stage of development?
- A. Two cell stage
- B. Four cell stage
- C. Morula
- D. Blastocyst (Correct Answer)
Explanation: Blastocyst - Implantation into the uterine wall occurs when the embryo has developed into a blastocyst, typically around day 6 post-fertilization [1]. - The blastocyst consists of an inner cell mass (which forms the embryo) and an outer layer called the trophoblast (which contributes to the placenta) [1]. Two cell stage - This stage occurs very early in development, usually within the first 24-30 hours after fertilization [1]. - At this point, the embryo is still in the fallopian tube and has not yet reached the uterus for implantation [1]. Four cell stage - The four-cell stage is also an early cleavage stage, occurring around 2 days post-fertilization [1]. - Like the two-cell stage, the embryo is still in transport through the fallopian tube and is not ready for implantation [1]. Morula - The morula is a solid ball of cells formed by cleavage, typically around day 3-4 post-fertilization [1]. - While it has moved closer to the uterus, it has not yet formed the distinct inner cell mass and trophoblast necessary for successful implantation [1].
Dermatology
5 questionsIn which of the following conditions is phototherapy, specifically ultraviolet light therapy, useful for treatment?
Acanthosis nigricans is characterized by all of the following except?
Which of the following organisms has a role to play in Seborrheic dermatitis?
Pruritus is a feature of which of the following conditions?
Most common flexural site for atopic dermatitis -
NEET-PG 2015 - Dermatology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1051: In which of the following conditions is phototherapy, specifically ultraviolet light therapy, useful for treatment?
- A. Psoriasis (Correct Answer)
- B. Tinea corporis
- C. Pemphigus
- D. PMLE
Explanation: ***Psoriasis*** - **Phototherapy** (narrowband UVB, broadband UVB, or PUVA) is a **well-established first-line treatment** for **moderate-to-severe psoriasis**. - It works by **suppressing overactive immune cells** in the skin, reducing inflammation and decreasing keratinocyte proliferation. - **Direct therapeutic effect** on active psoriatic lesions makes this the primary indication for phototherapy in dermatology. *Tinea corporis* - **Tinea corporis** is a **superficial fungal infection** (dermatophytosis) of the skin. - Requires **antifungal medications** (topical azoles or oral terbinafine/griseofulvin) for treatment. - **Phototherapy has no antifungal activity** and is not used for this condition. *Pemphigus* - **Pemphigus** is an **autoimmune blistering disease** with intraepidermal acantholysis. - Treatment requires **systemic immunosuppression** (corticosteroids, rituximab, azathioprine). - **Phototherapy is not indicated** and could potentially worsen the condition. *PMLE* - **Polymorphous light eruption (PMLE)** is a common **photosensitivity disorder**. - While **prophylactic photohardening** (gradual controlled UV exposure) can be used to build tolerance **before sun exposure season**, this is a **preventative desensitization strategy**, not treatment of active disease. - Unlike psoriasis, phototherapy does **not treat active PMLE lesions** and can trigger flares if not done properly. - The primary approach for active PMLE is **sun avoidance, sun protection, and topical corticosteroids**.
Question 1052: Acanthosis nigricans is characterized by all of the following except?
- A. Associated with thick skin with hyperpigmentation
- B. May be a sign of internal malignancy
- C. Common in obese people
- D. Histologically there is hypermelanosis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Histologically there is hypermelanosis*** - This statement is **FALSE** and is the correct answer to this "EXCEPT" question - The characteristic dark appearance of acanthosis nigricans is **NOT due to increased melanin** (hypermelanosis) - Histologically, the key features are **hyperkeratosis, papillomatosis, and mild acanthosis** - There is typically **minimal or no increase in melanocytes or melanin pigment** - The hyperpigmentation seen clinically is an optical effect from the thickened, hyperkeratotic epidermis *May be a sign of internal malignancy* - This statement is **true**; acanthosis nigricans can be a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with internal malignancies - **Malignant acanthosis nigricans** is particularly associated with **gastrointestinal adenocarcinomas** (especially gastric) - This form typically has sudden onset, rapid progression, and more widespread involvement *Common in obese people* - This statement is **true**; acanthosis nigricans is frequently associated with **insulin resistance** - Commonly seen in individuals with **obesity, type 2 diabetes, and metabolic syndrome** - This benign form typically affects flexural areas (neck, axillae, groin) *Associated with thick skin with hyperpigmentation* - This statement is **true**; these are the hallmark clinical features of acanthosis nigricans - Presents as **velvety thickening** and **dark brown to black hyperpigmentation** - Typically affects intertriginous areas and skin folds
Question 1053: Which of the following organisms has a role to play in Seborrheic dermatitis?
- A. Pityrosporum ovale (Correct Answer)
- B. Propionibacterium
- C. Candida albicans
- D. None of the above
Explanation: ***Pityrosporum ovale*** - **Pityrosporum ovale**, now known as **Malassezia furfur**, is a lipophilic yeast that colonizes the skin and plays a significant role in the pathogenesis of **seborrheic dermatitis**. - Its presence is commonly associated with the inflammatory response seen in seborrheic dermatitis, though the exact mechanism is not fully understood. *Candida albicans* - **Candida albicans** is a common cause of **mucocutaneous candidiasis** and **intertrigo**, but it is not directly implicated in the etiology of seborrheic dermatitis. - While it can cause skin infections, its typical presentation involves erythematous, macerated rashes with satellite lesions in skin folds. *Propionibacterium* - **Propionibacterium acnes**, now known as **Cutibacterium acnes**, is primarily associated with the pathogenesis of **acne vulgaris**. - It plays a role in the inflammation and comedone formation characteristic of acne, not the scaling and erythema of seborrheic dermatitis. *None of the above* - This option is incorrect because **Pityrosporum ovale (Malassezia furfur)** is a well-recognized organism involved in seborrheic dermatitis. - The other organisms listed are associated with different dermatological conditions.
Question 1054: Pruritus is a feature of which of the following conditions?
- A. Pemphigus foliaceous
- B. Pemphigus vulgaris
- C. Bullous pemphigoid (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Bullous pemphigoid*** - **Pruritus**, often severe, is a common and early symptom of bullous pemphigoid, often preceding the appearance of skin lesions. - The disease involves autoantibodies against **hemidesmosomal proteins** (BPAG1, BPAG2), leading to subepidermal blister formation. *Pemphigus foliaceous* - This condition is characterized by **superficial blistering** and erosions, but **pruritus is typically mild or absent**. - Blisters form in the **granular layer of the epidermis** due to autoantibodies against desmoglein 1. *Pemphigus vulgaris* - Patients with pemphigus vulgaris present with **flaccid blisters and erosions**, mainly affecting the skin and mucous membranes, but **pruritus is not a prominent feature**. - The disease involves intraepidermal blistering caused by autoantibodies targeting **desmoglein 3 (and sometimes desmoglein 1)**. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect, as **pruritus is a characteristic symptom of bullous pemphigoid**.
Question 1055: Most common flexural site for atopic dermatitis -
- A. Popliteal fossa
- B. Elbow crease (Correct Answer)
- C. Scalp
- D. Trunk
Explanation: ***Elbow crease*** - The **antecubital fossa** (elbow crease) and **popliteal fossa** (knee crease) are the **two most characteristic flexural sites** for atopic dermatitis in children and adults. - Both sites are **equally common** and represent classic presentations of flexural eczema. - The constant rubbing, friction, and moisture retention in these areas contribute to skin irritation and the characteristic **lichenification** seen in atopic dermatitis. - In the context of this question asking for "most common," both antecubital and popliteal fossae are considered the primary flexural sites. *Popliteal fossa* - The **popliteal fossa** (behind the knee) is equally as common as the antecubital fossa and is a classic flexural site for atopic dermatitis. - It shares the same pathophysiological mechanisms and clinical presentation as the elbow crease. - Both antecubital and popliteal fossae are mentioned together in standard dermatology texts as the hallmark flexural sites. *Scalp* - While the scalp can be affected by atopic dermatitis, especially in **infants** (as **seborrheic dermatitis** or cradle cap), it is **not a flexural site**. - Scalp involvement typically presents as scaling and erythema, rather than the lichenified plaques characteristic of flexural eczema. *Trunk* - The trunk can be affected by atopic dermatitis with diffuse patches or widespread xerosis, but it is **not a flexural site**. - Flexural areas (skin folds) are the characteristic locations for atopic dermatitis in the flexural pattern.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
4 questionsA 28-year-old primigravida with 32 weeks of gestation presents with profuse vaginal discharge since yesterday. She was advised USG, which showed a single live intrauterine gestational sac with FL and AC corresponding to the weeks of gestation and AFI as adequate. What is the diagnosis?
Poor prognostic factor for hydatidiform mole is -
Which of the following drugs is commonly used in the treatment of endometriosis?
What condition is diagnosed using the Amsel criteria?
NEET-PG 2015 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1051: A 28-year-old primigravida with 32 weeks of gestation presents with profuse vaginal discharge since yesterday. She was advised USG, which showed a single live intrauterine gestational sac with FL and AC corresponding to the weeks of gestation and AFI as adequate. What is the diagnosis?
- A. Candidiasis
- B. Trichomoniasis
- C. Normal vaginal discharge (Correct Answer)
- D. Preterm Premature Rupture of Membranes (PPROM)
Explanation: ***Normal vaginal discharge*** - Profuse vaginal discharge is a common and **physiological occurrence** in pregnancy due to increased estrogen levels and blood flow to the vagina. - The ultrasound findings of **adequate amniotic fluid index (AFI)** rule out rupture of membranes, and no other symptoms of infection are reported. *Preterm Premature Rupture of Membranes (PPROM)* - PPROM would present with a significant reduction in the **amniotic fluid index (AFI)** on ultrasound, which is noted as adequate in this case. - The discharge in PPROM is typically **amniotic fluid**, which is clear and watery, unlike mere profuse vaginal discharge. *Trichomoniasis* - This infection typically causes a **frothy, greenish-yellow discharge** with a foul odor, along with vulvar itching and irritation. - These characteristic symptoms are not mentioned in the patient's presentation. *Candidiasis* - Vaginal candidiasis usually presents with a **thick, white, cottage cheese-like discharge** accompanied by intense itching and burning. - The patient's description of discharge is simply "profuse," without these specific characteristics.
Question 1052: Poor prognostic factor for hydatidiform mole is -
- A. Prior molar pregnancy
- B. Metastasis to lung
- C. No prior chemotherapy
- D. WHO score > 8 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***WHO score > 8*** - A **WHO score > 8** (more specifically, WHO/FIGO score ≥7) indicates **high-risk gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN)**, which is associated with a poor prognosis and requires multi-agent chemotherapy. - The WHO prognostic scoring system incorporates various factors: age, prior pregnancy outcome, antecedent pregnancy type, interval from index pregnancy, pre-treatment hCG level, largest tumor size, site of metastases, and number of metastases. - This is the **strongest poor prognostic indicator** among the options listed. *Prior molar pregnancy* - A **prior molar pregnancy** increases the *risk* of developing another molar pregnancy (recurrence risk ~1-2%), but it is **not a component of the WHO prognostic scoring system** and is not a poor prognostic factor for the outcome of current GTN. - The history affects surveillance requirements but doesn't dictate the difficulty of treating the current episode. *Metastasis to lung* - **Lung metastases** are actually among the **better prognostic sites** for metastatic GTN in the WHO scoring system. - Lung and vaginal metastases score only 1 point, whereas liver and brain metastases (true poor prognostic sites) score 4 points each. - While any metastasis indicates more advanced disease, isolated lung metastases generally have a *good prognosis* with appropriate chemotherapy, with cure rates >90%. *No prior chemotherapy* - The *absence* of **prior chemotherapy** is a **favorable prognostic factor**, not a poor one. - Patients who have *failed* prior chemotherapy or have received ≥2 drugs previously score 2-4 points in the WHO system, indicating worse prognosis. - No prior chemotherapy (scores 0 points) means better treatment response and outcomes.
Question 1053: Which of the following drugs is commonly used in the treatment of endometriosis?
- A. None of the above
- B. Letrozole
- C. Mifepristone
- D. Combined oral contraceptives (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Combined oral contraceptives*** - **Combined oral contraceptives (COCs)** are the **most commonly used first-line medical treatment** for endometriosis, as they suppress ovulation and reduce estrogen production, thereby reducing endometrial lesion growth. - They help manage **endometriosis-associated pain** by decreasing menstrual flow and uterine contractions. - COCs are widely prescribed due to their efficacy, safety profile, and additional contraceptive benefits. *Letrozole* - **Letrozole** is an aromatase inhibitor that reduces local estrogen production and has shown efficacy in treating endometriosis, particularly in refractory cases. - However, it is **not commonly used as first-line therapy** due to potential side effects (bone density concerns, teratogenicity) and is typically reserved for cases resistant to conventional hormonal therapy. - It may be used in combination with progestins for better outcomes. *Mifepristone* - **Mifepristone** is an antiprogestin primarily used for medical abortion or in the treatment of Cushing's syndrome. - It works by blocking **progesterone receptors** and is not a standard treatment for endometriosis. *None of the above* - This option is incorrect because **combined oral contraceptives** are the most widely accepted and commonly used treatment for endometriosis.
Question 1054: What condition is diagnosed using the Amsel criteria?
- A. Bacterial vaginosis (Correct Answer)
- B. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
- C. Ovarian ectopic pregnancy
- D. HELLP Syndrome
Explanation: ***Bacterial vaginosis*** - The **Amsel criteria** are specifically used for the clinical diagnosis of **bacterial vaginosis (BV)**. - The criteria include the presence of at least three of four findings: **homogeneous discharge**, **vaginal pH >4.5**, **positive whiff test**, and **clue cells** on microscopy. *Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome* - This syndrome is diagnosed based on **clinical criteria** (thrombosis, pregnancy morbidity) and the presence of persistent **antiphospholipid antibodies** (lupus anticoagulant, anti-cardiolipin, anti-β2-glycoprotein I antibodies). - It does not involve the use of the Amsel criteria. *Ovarian ectopic pregnancy* - Diagnosed primarily through **ultrasound imaging** showing a gestational sac or fetal heartbeat within the ovary, often accompanied by clinical symptoms like abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. - This condition is not related to vaginal infections or the Amsel criteria. *HELLP Syndrome* - **HELLP syndrome** (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets) is a severe obstetric complication usually occurring in pregnancy, diagnosed by **laboratory findings** of these specific abnormalities. - It is a systemic condition, not a vaginal infection, and does not use the Amsel criteria for diagnosis.