NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Laryngeal mask airway [LMA] is contraindicated in?

Pregnant female. ***Pregnant female*** - **Pregnant patients** are at an increased risk of **gastric reflux and aspiration pneumonitis** due to decreased lower esophageal sphincter tone and increased intra-abdominal pressure. - The LMA does not provide a secure airway seal against aspiration, making it contraindicated in cases where **aspiration risk is high**, such as pregnancy or full stomach. *Difficult airways* - The LMA is often considered a **rescue device** in difficult airway algorithms when tracheal intubation fails. - It can be used as a conduit for **fiberoptic intubation** or as a temporary airway while preparing for a definitive airway. *Ocular surgeries* - LMAs are generally suitable for ocular surgeries as they provide a stable airway without the use of a mask, which can obstruct the surgical field. - They tend to cause **less coughing and straining** upon insertion and maintenance compared to endotracheal tubes, which is beneficial in preventing increases in intraocular pressure. *In CPR* - The LMA can be an effective airway device during **cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)** when endotracheal intubation is not immediately feasible. - It provides a relatively quick and easy way to establish an airway, facilitate ventilation, and reduce the risk of gastric insufflation during chest compressions.

Q: Which one of the following agents sensitizes the myocardium to catecholamines?

Halothane. ***Halothane*** - **Halothane** sensitizes the myocardium to the arrhythmogenic effects of **catecholamines**, leading to an increased risk of ventricular arrhythmias, especially in the presence of exogenous adrenaline. - This sensitization occurs due to its effect on myocardial **calcium ion** regulation and increased automaticity in cardiac pacemaker cells. *Isoflurane* - **Isoflurane** causes minimal sensitization of the myocardium to catecholamines compared to halothane. - It maintains **cardiac output** with a dose-dependent decrease in systemic vascular resistance. *Ether* - **Diethylether** historically caused sympathetic stimulation, which could mask some depressant effects but did not primarily sensitize the myocardium to arrhythmias from exogenous catecholamines. - Its use has largely been replaced due to its flammability and slower induction/recovery. *Propofol* - **Propofol** generally causes myocardial depression and vasodilation, but it does **not sensitize** the myocardium to catecholamines in a clinically significant way that increases arrhythmogenic risk. - It often leads to a decrease in **blood pressure** and heart rate.

Q: Which anesthetic agent is safe to use in patients with elevated intracranial pressure (ICP)?

Thiopentone. ***Thiopentone*** - **Thiopentone** is a barbiturate that **decreases cerebral blood flow** and **metabolic rate**, leading to a reduction in intracranial pressure (ICP). - Its rapid onset and short duration of action make it suitable for inducing anesthesia in patients with elevated ICP. *Halothane* - **Halothane** is a potent **vasodilator** that can increase cerebral blood flow and consequently **elevate intracranial pressure**, making it unsuitable. - It also has a **slow onset and offset**, which can be problematic in emergent situations involving ICP. *Ketamine* - **Ketamine** is known to significantly **increase cerebral blood flow** and **intracranial pressure**, making it generally contraindicated in patients with elevated ICP. - It can also cause **dissociative states** and **emergence delirium**, which can further complicate neurological assessment. *Ether* - **Ether** is an older anesthetic agent known to cause **significant cerebral vasodilation** and an **increase in intracranial pressure**. - It is **highly flammable** and rarely used in modern clinical practice due to its side effects and safety profile.

Q: At the end of anaesthesia after discontinuation of nitrous oxide and removal of endotracheal tube, 100% oxygen is administered to the patient to prevent:

Diffusion Hypoxia. ***Diffusion Hypoxia*** - Post-anaesthesia administration of 100% oxygen prevents **diffusion hypoxia**, a phenomenon where **nitrous oxide** rapidly diffuses out of the blood into the alveoli, diluting alveolar oxygen and carbon dioxide. - This rapid outflow of nitrous oxide can lead to a significant drop in **partial pressure of oxygen** in the alveoli, causing hypoxemia if not counteracted with high inspired oxygen. *Second gas effect* - The **second gas effect** refers to the phenomenon where the rapid uptake of a highly soluble anesthetic (like nitrous oxide) accelerates the uptake of a co-administered less soluble anesthetic. - This is an effect related to the **induction phase** of anesthesia, not emergence, and is distinct from the issues arising from nitrous oxide washout. *Bronchospasm* - **Bronchospasm** is an acute constriction of the bronchioles, often triggered by irritants, allergens, or certain medications. - While it can occur during emergence from anesthesia, it is not directly prevented by administering 100% oxygen and is typically managed with bronchodilators. *Hyperoxia* - **Hyperoxia** is a condition of excess oxygen in the body, which can be detrimental, but it is not the primary concern immediately following the discontinuation of nitrous oxide. - Administering 100% oxygen in this context is a **controlled, short-term measure** to prevent a more immediate and severe issue (hypoxia) rather than causing chronic hyperoxia.

Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding pemphigus vulgaris?

It is an intraepidermal blistering disease.. ***It is an intraepidermal blistering disease.*** - **Pemphigus vulgaris** is characterized by the formation of blisters *within the epidermis* due to the loss of cell-to-cell adhesion between **keratinocytes**. - This **acantholysis** results from autoantibodies targeting **desmosomes**, specifically **desmoglein 1 and 3**. *It is a subepidermal blistering disease.* - This statement is incorrect as it describes conditions like **bullous pemphigoid** or **dermatitis herpetiformis**, where blisters form *below* the epidermis. - In pemphigus vulgaris, the separation occurs *above* the basement membrane within the epidermal layer. *It primarily affects the dermal-epidermal junction.* - This is characteristic of **bullous pemphigoid** or **epidermolysis bullosa acquisita**, where the primary pathology involves the separation at the interface between the dermis and epidermis. - Pemphigus vulgaris directly affects the adhesion *within* the epidermis itself. *Antibodies are formed against basement membrane proteins.* - This is characteristic of **bullous pemphigoid**, where autoantibodies target components of the **basement membrane zone**, such as **BP180** and **BP230**. - In pemphigus vulgaris, the autoantibodies target **desmogleins** on the surface of keratinocytes, not basement membrane proteins.

Q: Which of the following statements about actinic lichen planus is false?

Associated with severe pruritus. ***Associated with severe pruritus*** - While other forms of lichen planus, especially the typical cutaneous type, are often associated with **severe pruritus**, actinic lichen planus is typically characterized by **mild or absent pruritus**. - Its presentation is often more focused on pigmentary changes and papules in sun-exposed areas rather than intense itching. *Autoimmune etiology* - **Lichen planus**, including its actinic variant, is recognized as an **autoimmune disease**. - It involves a **T-cell-mediated immune response** against basal keratinocytes. *Violaceous brown papules* - Actinic lichen planus commonly presents with **violaceous, brown, or hyperpigmented papules and plaques**. - These lesions often exhibit a subtle **annular or reticulated pattern**. *Usually affects exposed areas of body* - As its name suggests ("actinic" referring to light), this variant of lichen planus preferentially affects **sun-exposed areas** such as the face, neck, and dorsal hands. - This distribution distinguishes it from classic lichen planus, which can occur anywhere but often affects the flexor surfaces of the wrists, ankles, and oral mucosa.

Q: Which of the following is characterized by a solitary painless ulcer on genitalia?

Syphilis. ***Syphilis*** - Primary syphilis typically presents as a **painless chancre** (ulcer) at the site of infection, usually the **genitalia**. - The painless nature is a key differentiating feature as it often goes unnoticed, allowing the disease to progress. *Genital herpes* - Characterized by multiple, small, often painful vesicles or ulcers that may coalesce [1]. - Lesions are typically tender or painful, unlike the **painless chancre** of syphilis [1]. *Traumatic injury* - While a traumatic injury can cause a solitary ulcer, it is usually painful and often associated with a clear history of trauma. - The ulcer's morphology and healing process may differ from a classic syphilitic chancre. *Chancroid* - Caused by *Haemophilus ducreyi*, chancroid presents as one or more painful, tender ulcers with ragged, undermined borders. - This is a significant differentiator from the **painless ulcer** seen in primary syphilis.

Q: What is the normal range for maximum phonation time in healthy adults?

30-35 seconds. ***30-35 seconds*** - The **maximum phonation time (MPT)** is a measure of the longest period a person can sustain a vowel sound on a single breath. - A healthy adult typically has an MPT in the range of **30-35 seconds**, reflecting good respiratory and phonatory control. *8-12 seconds* - This range is generally considered **below normal** for a healthy adult and may indicate compromised **respiratory support** or **laryngeal function**. - A short MPT could be a sign of **vocal fold pathology** or **reduced breath support**. *15-25 seconds* - While better than 8-12 seconds, this range is still often considered **slightly lower than optimal** for healthy adults. - It might suggest subtle inefficiencies in **breath control** or **vocal fold coaptation**, though it's not severely pathological. *40-45 seconds* - An MPT in this range is **unusually long** and exceeds the typical normal values for most healthy adults. - While seemingly good, excessively long MPTs are not standard and might suggest unusual respiratory capacity or an outlier measurement.

Q: Which of the following drugs can lead to pemphigus?

Penicillamine. ***Penicillamine*** - **Penicillamine** is a well-known drug that can induce **pemphigus**, often through mechanisms involving alterations in **desmosome structure** or function. - The drug's sulfhydryl groups are thought to interfere with the integrity of **desmoglein proteins**, leading to blister formation. *Isoniazid* - **Isoniazid** is a first-line antituberculosis drug primarily associated with **hepatotoxicity** and **peripheral neuropathy**. - It is not typically implicated in the development of **pemphigus**. *Carbamazepine* - **Carbamazepine** is an anticonvulsant that can cause various cutaneous reactions, most notably **Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS)** and **toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN)**. - While it can cause severe skin reactions, **pemphigus** is not a common side effect of carbamazepine. *Furosemide* - **Furosemide** is a loop diuretic that can cause **photosensitivity**, rashes, and rarely, severe skin reactions like **erythema multiforme**. - It is not recognized as a drug that induces **pemphigus**.

Q: What type of respiratory failure is most commonly observed in post-operative patients?

Hypoxemic respiratory failure. ***Hypoxemic respiratory failure*** - **Hypoxemic respiratory failure** (Type I) is characterized by a **PaO2 less than 60 mmHg** with a normal or low PaCO2, often due to **V/Q mismatch** and **shunt**. - Post-operative patients frequently develop **atelectasis**, **pneumonia**, or **pulmonary edema**, leading to impaired gas exchange and reduced oxygenation. - This is the **most commonly observed type** in the immediate post-operative period. *Hypercapnic respiratory failure* - **Hypercapnic respiratory failure** (Type II) is primarily due to **alveolar hypoventilation**, resulting in a **PaCO2 greater than 50 mmHg**. - While it can occur post-operatively, it is less common than hypoxemic failure and is typically seen with significant **sedation**, **neuromuscular blockade**, or severe **obstructive lung disease**. *Mixed respiratory failure* - **Mixed respiratory failure** involves both **hypoxemia** and **hypercapnia**, indicating severe impairment in both oxygenation and ventilation. - Although it can occur in severe post-operative complications, it is not the *most commonly observed initial presentation* compared to isolated hypoxemia. *Perioperative respiratory failure* - **Perioperative respiratory failure** (Type III) occurs specifically in the surgical setting and involves atelectasis from changes in chest wall mechanics. - While this occurs in the post-operative context, the term is less commonly used, and the **underlying mechanism is primarily hypoxemic** in nature.

Question 1

Laryngeal mask airway [LMA] is contraindicated in?

Accepted Answer

Pregnant female

Answer

Ocular surgeries

Answer

Difficult airways

Answer

In CPR

Question 2

Which one of the following agents sensitizes the myocardium to catecholamines?

Accepted Answer

Halothane

Answer

Isoflurane

Answer

Ether

Answer

Propofol

Question 3

Which anesthetic agent is safe to use in patients with elevated intracranial pressure (ICP)?

Accepted Answer

Thiopentone

Answer

Halothane

Answer

Ketamine

Answer

Ether

Question 4

At the end of anaesthesia after discontinuation of nitrous oxide and removal of endotracheal tube, 100% oxygen is administered to the patient to prevent:

Accepted Answer

Diffusion Hypoxia

Answer

Second gas effect

Answer

Bronchospasm

Answer

Hyperoxia

Question 5

Which of the following statements is true regarding pemphigus vulgaris?

Accepted Answer

It is an intraepidermal blistering disease.

Answer

It primarily affects the dermal-epidermal junction.

Answer

It is a subepidermal blistering disease.

Answer

Antibodies are formed against basement membrane proteins.

Question 6

Which of the following statements about actinic lichen planus is false?

Accepted Answer

Associated with severe pruritus

Answer

Violaceous brown papules

Answer

Usually affects exposed areas of body

Answer

Autoimmune etiology

Question 7

Which of the following is characterized by a solitary painless ulcer on genitalia?

Accepted Answer

Syphilis

Answer

Genital herpes

Answer

Traumatic injury

Answer

Chancroid

Question 8

What is the normal range for maximum phonation time in healthy adults?

Accepted Answer

30-35 seconds

Answer

15-25 seconds

Answer

40-45 seconds

Answer

8-12 seconds

Question 9

Which of the following drugs can lead to pemphigus?

Accepted Answer

Penicillamine

Answer

Carbamazepine

Answer

Isoniazid

Answer

Furosemide

Question 10

What type of respiratory failure is most commonly observed in post-operative patients?

Accepted Answer

Hypoxemic respiratory failure

Answer

Hypercapnic respiratory failure

Answer

Mixed respiratory failure

Answer

Perioperative respiratory failure

NEET-PG 2015

Anesthesiology

Dermatology

Internal Medicine

Pharmacology

Surgery