NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: All of the following are premalignant conditions except which of the following?

Pyoderma Gangrenosum. ***Pyoderma Gangrenosum*** - This is a **neutrophilic dermatosis** characterized by rapidly enlarging, painful ulcers with undermined, violaceous borders. It is an inflammatory condition, not premalignant. - While often associated with systemic diseases such as **inflammatory bowel disease** or **rheumatoid arthritis**, it does not inherently carry an increased risk of developing into skin cancer. *Bowen's Disease* - This is a form of **squamous cell carcinoma in situ**, meaning the cancerous cells are confined to the epidermis and have not yet invaded the dermis. - It is considered a **premalignant lesion** because it has the potential to progress to invasive squamous cell carcinoma if left untreated. *Actinic Keratosis* - These are **rough, scaly patches** on the skin caused by years of sun exposure, predominantly in fair-skinned individuals. - Actinic keratoses are considered **premalignant lesions** with a risk of transforming into invasive squamous cell carcinoma. *Xeroderma Pigmentosum* - This is a rare, **autosomal recessive genetic disorder** characterized by a defect in DNA repair mechanisms, specifically nucleotide excision repair. - Individuals with xeroderma pigmentosum have an extremely high risk of developing various **skin cancers** (basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, melanoma) at an early age due to their inability to repair UV-induced DNA damage.

Q: Which of the following organisms has a role to play in Seborrheic dermatitis?

Pityrosporum ovale. ***Pityrosporum ovale*** - **Pityrosporum ovale**, now known as **Malassezia furfur**, is a lipophilic yeast that colonizes the skin and plays a significant role in the pathogenesis of **seborrheic dermatitis**. - Its presence is commonly associated with the inflammatory response seen in seborrheic dermatitis, though the exact mechanism is not fully understood. *Candida albicans* - **Candida albicans** is a common cause of **mucocutaneous candidiasis** and **intertrigo**, but it is not directly implicated in the etiology of seborrheic dermatitis. - While it can cause skin infections, its typical presentation involves erythematous, macerated rashes with satellite lesions in skin folds. *Propionibacterium* - **Propionibacterium acnes**, now known as **Cutibacterium acnes**, is primarily associated with the pathogenesis of **acne vulgaris**. - It plays a role in the inflammation and comedone formation characteristic of acne, not the scaling and erythema of seborrheic dermatitis. *None of the above* - This option is incorrect because **Pityrosporum ovale (Malassezia furfur)** is a well-recognized organism involved in seborrheic dermatitis. - The other organisms listed are associated with different dermatological conditions.

Q: A 55 years old male with a known history of gallstones presents with chief complaints of severe abdominal pain and elevated levels of serum lipase with periumbilical ecchymosis. All of the following are prognostic criteria to predict the severity of acute pancreatitis except:

Serum GGT. ***Serum GGT*** - **Serum GGT (gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase)** is primarily used to evaluate liver and bile duct function and cholestasis, not as a direct prognostic indicator for acute pancreatitis severity. - While gallstones are mentioned, GGT elevation in this context would suggest the cause of pancreatitis rather than its severity. *Age* - **Age older than 55 years** is a significant prognostic factor in various scoring systems like Ranson's criteria and the APACHE II score, indicating a higher risk of severe disease and complications [1]. - Older patients generally have less physiologic reserve and are more prone to organ failure during severe pancreatitis [1]. *Serum LDH* - **Elevated serum LDH (lactate dehydrogenase)**, specifically above 350 IU/L, is one of Ranson's criteria for assessing the severity of acute pancreatitis within the first 48 hours. - It suggests significant tissue damage and necrosis, which correlates with worse outcomes. *Base deficit* - A **base deficit greater than 4 mEq/L** is an indicator of metabolic acidosis and is included in prognostic scoring systems for acute pancreatitis, such as the modified Glasgow criteria. - It reflects poor tissue perfusion, hypovolemia, and potentially severe systemic inflammation.

Q: Increased ICP is shown by

Reduction in GCS. ***Reduction in GCS*** - A **decrease in Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)** score is a primary indicator of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) due to compromised brain function [1], [2]. - Increased ICP can lead to **cerebral ischemia** and neuronal damage, manifesting as altered consciousness and lower GCS scores [1]. *Pupil constriction (Miosis)* - **Miosis**, or pupil constriction, is typically associated with **pontine lesions** or **opioid use**, and rarely directly with increased ICP unless it specifically involves brainstem compression at the pontine level. - Increased ICP more commonly causes **pupil dilation (mydriasis)**, especially unilateral, due to compression of the oculomotor nerve (CN III) [1]. *Systemic hypotension* - **Systemic hypotension** is generally *not* a direct sign of increased ICP; rather, increased ICP often results in **systemic hypertension** as part of Cushing's triad. - Hypotension in the context of brain injury might indicate **spinal shock** or other systemic issues, but generally not directly elevated ICP. *Tachycardia* - **Tachycardia** is also *not* typically associated with increased ICP; instead, **bradycardia** (slow heart rate) is a hallmark sign, forming part of Cushing's triad. - Tachycardia might suggest **hypovolemia**, **pain**, or other systemic stressors, but not directly increased ICP.

Q: In long standing rheumatoid arthritis, which condition is commonly observed?

Secondary amyloidosis. ***Secondary amyloidosis*** - Chronic inflammation in **rheumatoid arthritis** can lead to the production and deposition of **amyloid A protein**, which is the hallmark of secondary (AA) amyloidosis [1]. - **Secondary amyloidosis** can affect various organs, including the kidneys, heart, and gastrointestinal tract, leading to organ dysfunction [1]. *Milk alkali syndrome* - This condition is caused by excessive intake of **calcium** and absorbable alkali, resulting in **hypercalcemia** and **metabolic alkalosis**. - It is not directly associated with the chronic inflammatory process of rheumatoid arthritis. *Nephrolithiasis* - **Kidney stones** (nephrolithiasis) are often associated with genetic predispositions, dietary factors, and certain metabolic conditions like **hypercalciuria** or **hyperoxaluria**. - There is no direct causal link between **rheumatoid arthritis** and an increased risk of common types of kidney stones. *Paradoxical aciduria* - This condition is characterized by the excretion of acidic urine in the presence of **metabolic alkalosis**, typically due to **volume depletion** and **hypokalemia**. - While it reflects a disturbance in acid-base balance and renal function, it is not a direct or commonly observed complication of long-standing rheumatoid arthritis itself.

Q: Which of the following statements about chorionic villus sampling is false?

Is performed only in second trimester of pregnancy. ***Is performed only in second trimester of pregnancy*** - This statement is false because **chorionic villus sampling (CVS)** is typically performed earlier in pregnancy, specifically during the **first trimester**, usually between 10 and 13 weeks of gestation. - Performing CVS only in the second trimester would negate one of its main advantages: providing earlier genetic diagnostic information than **amniocentesis**. *Is used for prenatal genetic diagnosis* - **CVS** is a primary method for **prenatal genetic diagnosis**, allowing for the detection of chromosomal abnormalities and genetic disorders. - It involves analyzing fetal cells obtained from the **chorionic villi**. *Villi are collected from chorion frondosum* - The sample for **CVS** is indeed collected from the **chorion frondosum**, which is the fetal part of the placenta containing numerous chorionic villi. - These villi are genetically identical to the fetus, making them suitable for **genetic analysis**. *Can cause limb deformities* - There is a recognized, albeit small, risk of **limb reduction defects** associated with CVS, particularly if performed very early in gestation (before 9-10 weeks). - This risk is part of the counseling provided to prospective parents considering the procedure.

Q: At what age does stranger anxiety typically develop in infants?

7 months. ***7 months*** - **Stranger anxiety** typically emerges around **6-8 months** of age, peaking around 9-12 months. - This developmental stage reflects the infant's growing ability to distinguish between familiar and unfamiliar faces and their developing **attachment to primary caregivers**. *3 months* - At 3 months, infants are typically in an earlier stage of social development, primarily focusing on **recognizing primary caregivers** and showing social smiles. - They generally do not exhibit stranger anxiety, as their cognitive and emotional development has not yet reached that milestone. *4 months* - While 4-month-olds are becoming more socially aware and responsive, their **object permanence** and ability to differentiate strangers from familiar faces is still developing. - Therefore, definitive stranger anxiety is typically not observed at this age. *11 months* - By 11 months, stranger anxiety has already developed and is usually **at its peak**, as infants at this age have a well-established sense of who their primary caregivers are. - While stranger anxiety is very prominent at this age, it is not when it typically **develops** (initial emergence), but rather when it is most pronounced.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a milestone typically expected at 1 year of age?

Walking upstairs independently. ***Walking upstairs independently*** - **Walking upstairs independently** is a gross motor skill that typically develops much later, around **24-36 months of age**, as it requires advanced balance, coordination, and bilateral leg strength. - At 1 year, an infant might be able to *pull to stand*, *cruise* (walk while holding onto furniture), or take a few independent steps, but independent stair climbing is well beyond their developmental capacity. *Playing a simple ball game* - By 1 year, many infants can participate in simple interactive games like rolling a ball back and forth, demonstrating early **social reciprocity and motor coordination**. - This activity involves basic object manipulation and understanding of turn-taking, which are typical **social-adaptive milestones** at this age. *Using 2 words that are meaningful* - Most 1-year-olds can say 1-2 meaningful words besides "mama" and "dada" (e.g., "ball", "dog", "bye"), showing emerging **expressive language skills**. - This milestone is indicative of vocabulary development and the child's ability to associate words with objects or actions. *Spontaneous scribbling* - Around 12 months, children typically make **imitative scribbles** when shown how to use a crayon, demonstrating early **fine motor control**. - While some advanced 1-year-olds may begin spontaneous scribbling, this skill is more consistently achieved around **15-18 months**, making it an age-appropriate milestone for most infants at 1 year. - The key distinction is that at 1 year, scribbling is usually *prompted* rather than truly spontaneous.

Q: Which of the following medications is primarily used to decrease serum triglycerides?

Fibrates. ***Fibrates*** - Fibrates, such as **gemfibrozil** and **fenofibrate**, are primarily used to activate **PPAR-alpha**, leading to increased lipoprotein lipase activity and reduced hepatic triglyceride synthesis. - This effectively lowers **serum triglyceride levels** by 20-50% and can also increase HDL cholesterol. *Statin* - Statins primarily inhibit **HMG-CoA reductase**, the rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis, which makes them highly effective at lowering **LDL cholesterol**. - While they can cause a modest reduction in triglycerides (10-30%), this is not their primary mechanism or indication. *Ezetimibe* - Ezetimibe works by inhibiting the absorption of **cholesterol** at the brush border of the small intestine, thereby lowering **LDL cholesterol**. - It has minimal effect on **triglyceride levels** and is not indicated for primary triglyceride reduction. *Niacin* - Niacin, or **nicotinic acid**, reduces the liver's production of VLDL (which contains triglycerides) and LDL, and also increases HDL cholesterol. - While it can significantly lower triglycerides, its use is often limited by bothersome side effects such as **flushing** and itchiness, making fibrates generally preferred for primary triglyceride lowering due to better tolerability.

Q: Rigler's sign is suggestive of?

Pneumoperitoneum. ***Correct: Pneumoperitoneum*** - **Rigler's sign** (double wall sign) is the visualization of both the **inner (mucosal) and outer (serosal) surfaces** of the bowel wall on an abdominal X-ray. - This occurs when **free intraperitoneal air** outlines both sides of the bowel wall, making it a **pathognomonic sign of pneumoperitoneum**. - Commonly seen in **bowel perforation** from causes like peptic ulcer, trauma, or iatrogenic injury. *Incorrect: Pneumothorax* - Refers to air in the **pleural space** (thoracic cavity), not the peritoneal cavity. - Diagnosed on chest X-ray by the **visceral pleural line** with absent lung markings peripherally. - Completely different anatomical compartment from where Rigler's sign is observed. *Incorrect: Peritonitis* - Represents **inflammation of the peritoneum**, which is a clinical and pathological diagnosis. - While pneumoperitoneum from perforation can **lead to peritonitis**, Rigler's sign specifically indicates the **presence of free air**, not inflammation itself. - Peritonitis has no specific pathognomonic radiological sign like Rigler's. *Incorrect: Hemothorax* - Refers to **blood in the pleural cavity** (thoracic, not abdominal). - Appears as a **pleural effusion** with meniscus sign on chest X-ray. - Unrelated to abdominal radiological findings or free air.

Question 1

All of the following are premalignant conditions except which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Pyoderma Gangrenosum

Answer

Bowen's Disease

Answer

Xeroderma Pigmentosum

Answer

Actinic Keratosis

Question 2

Which of the following organisms has a role to play in Seborrheic dermatitis?

Accepted Answer

Pityrosporum ovale

Answer

Propionibacterium

Answer

Candida albicans

Answer

None of the above

Question 3

A 55 years old male with a known history of gallstones presents with chief complaints of severe abdominal pain and elevated levels of serum lipase with periumbilical ecchymosis. All of the following are prognostic criteria to predict the severity of acute pancreatitis except:

Accepted Answer

Serum GGT

Answer

Serum LDH

Answer

Base deficit

Answer

Age

Question 4

Increased ICP is shown by

Accepted Answer

Reduction in GCS

Answer

Pupil constriction (Miosis)

Answer

Systemic hypotension

Answer

Tachycardia

Question 5

In long standing rheumatoid arthritis, which condition is commonly observed?

Accepted Answer

Secondary amyloidosis

Answer

Milk alkali syndrome

Answer

Nephrolithiasis

Answer

Paradoxical aciduria

Question 6

Which of the following statements about chorionic villus sampling is false?

Accepted Answer

Is performed only in second trimester of pregnancy

Answer

Can cause limb deformities

Answer

Is used for prenatal genetic diagnosis

Answer

Villi are collected from chorion frondosum

Question 7

At what age does stranger anxiety typically develop in infants?

Accepted Answer

7 months

Answer

3 months

Answer

4 months

Answer

11 months

Question 8

Which of the following is NOT a milestone typically expected at 1 year of age?

Accepted Answer

Walking upstairs independently

Answer

Playing a simple ball game

Answer

Using 2 words that are meaningful

Answer

Spontaneous scribbling

Question 9

Which of the following medications is primarily used to decrease serum triglycerides?

Accepted Answer

Fibrates

Answer

Ezetimibe

Answer

Niacin

Answer

Statin

Question 10

Rigler's sign is suggestive of?

Accepted Answer

Pneumoperitoneum

Answer

Pneumothorax

Answer

Peritonitis

Answer

Hemothorax

NEET-PG 2015

Dermatology

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pediatrics

Pharmacology

Radiology