Anatomy
2 questionsWhich of the following structures is present in an XY child but absent in an XX child?
Which part of the bone is considered the most vascular zone?
NEET-PG 2015 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1031: Which of the following structures is present in an XY child but absent in an XX child?
- A. Urethral glands (Cowper's glands)
- B. Prostate gland (Correct Answer)
- C. Ovaries
- D. Vestibular glands (Bartholin's glands)
Explanation: ***Prostate gland*** - The **prostate gland** is the most characteristic male-specific accessory reproductive organ that is **definitively present in XY and absent in XX individuals**. - It develops from the **urogenital sinus** under the influence of **dihydrotestosterone (DHT)** during embryonic development. - The prostate is a **substantial glandular structure** that surrounds the urethra and produces approximately 30% of seminal fluid. - It has **no homologous structure in females**—there is no female equivalent organ. *Incorrect: Urethral glands (Cowper's glands)* - **Cowper's glands (bulbourethral glands)** are indeed male-specific structures present only in XY individuals. - However, they are **homologous to Bartholin's glands** in females—meaning both develop from similar embryonic tissue (urogenital sinus). - While the question technically could accept this answer, the **prostate gland is the more definitive answer** as it is larger, more clinically significant, and has no female homologue. - Cowper's glands are small pea-sized glands that contribute to pre-ejaculate fluid. *Incorrect: Ovaries* - **Ovaries** are the primary female gonads present in **XX individuals**, not XY individuals [1]. - They produce ova and female sex hormones (estrogen and progesterone) [1]. - In XY individuals, the **testes** develop instead under the influence of the SRY gene. *Incorrect: Vestibular glands (Bartholin's glands)* - **Bartholin's glands** are female-specific structures present in **XX individuals**, not XY individuals. - Located at the posterior vaginal opening, they secrete mucus for vaginal lubrication. - They are homologous to Cowper's glands in males but are distinct structures.
Question 1032: Which part of the bone is considered the most vascular zone?
- A. Metaphysis (Correct Answer)
- B. Diaphysis
- C. Epiphysis
- D. Medullary Cavity
Explanation: ***Metaphysis*** - The metaphysis is the most **vascular** part of the bone, containing numerous blood vessels that supply the growing bone. - This high vascularity makes it a common site for **osteomyelitis** and bone tumors due to the abundant blood supply [1]. *Diaphysis* - The diaphysis is the **shaft** or central part of a long bone, primarily composed of **compact bone** [2]. - While it has blood supply through nutrient arteries, its vascularity is less dense compared to the metaphysis. *Epiphysis* - The epiphysis is the **end portion** of a long bone, typically covered by articular cartilage. - It receives its blood supply from periarticular vessels, but is less vascular than the metaphysis, especially in mature bone. *Medullary Cavity* - The medullary cavity is the central cavity of bone shafts where **bone marrow** is stored [2]. - While it contains hematopoietic stem cells and a rich blood supply, the surrounding bone tissue of the metaphysis itself is considered more vascular in terms of nutrient delivery and growth.
Biochemistry
1 questionsWhich of these is not a part of extracellular matrix:
NEET-PG 2015 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1031: Which of these is not a part of extracellular matrix:
- A. Collagen
- B. Laminin
- C. Fibronectin
- D. Integrins (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Integrins*** - Integrins are **transmembrane receptors** on the cell surface that facilitate cell-extracellular matrix (ECM) adhesion and cell-cell adhesion. - They are part of the cell membrane, **not** an extracellular component. *Laminin* - **Laminin** is a major protein component of the **basal lamina**, a specialized extracellular matrix that underlies epithelial cells. - It plays a crucial role in cell adhesion, differentiation, and migration within the ECM. *Fibronectin* - **Fibronectin** is a large glycoprotein present in the **extracellular matrix** and in soluble form in blood plasma. - It mediates cell adhesion to the ECM by binding to integrins and various ECM components like collagen and proteoglycans. *Collagen* - **Collagen** is the most abundant protein in the human body and a primary structural component of the **extracellular matrix**. - It provides tensile strength and structural integrity to tissues like skin, bone, tendons, and cartilage.
Internal Medicine
2 questionsReduced osmolarity ORS does not contain which of the following ions?
Therapeutic phlebotomy is not done in which of the following conditions?
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1031: Reduced osmolarity ORS does not contain which of the following ions?
- A. Sodium
- B. Potassium
- C. Lactate (Correct Answer)
- D. Citrate
Explanation: ***Lactate*** - The **reduced osmolarity ORS** formulation replaced **bicarbonate** with **citrate** and does not contain lactate. - **Citrate** is preferred over lactate / bicarbonate due to its stability, longer shelf life, and ease of dissolution. *Sodium* - **Sodium** is a crucial component of ORS, as it is co-transported with glucose into enterocytes, facilitating water absorption through **solvent drag**. - Reduced osmolarity ORS has a **lower sodium concentration** (75 mEq/L) compared to standard ORS (90 mEq/L) to minimize hypernatremia risk and enhance water absorption. *Potassium* - **Potassium** is included in ORS to replace intestinal losses, as **diarrhea** leads to significant potassium depletion. - Maintaining adequate **potassium levels** is essential for normal cellular function and preventing hypokalemia-related complications. *Citrate* - **Citrate** is a component of ORS that serves as an **alkalinizing agent** to correct metabolic acidosis often associated with dehydration in diarrheal diseases. - It also enhances the absorption of sodium and water in the intestine.
Question 1032: Therapeutic phlebotomy is not done in which of the following conditions?
- A. CML (Correct Answer)
- B. Polycythemia vera
- C. Hemochromatosis
- D. Porphyria cutanea tarda
Explanation: CML - **Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)** is typically treated with targeted therapies like **Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors** (e.g., Imatinib), not phlebotomy [1]. - Therapeutic phlebotomy is ineffective in managing the **hypercellularity** or symptoms associated with this condition compared to other conditions [1]. *Polycythemia vera* - Therapeutic phlebotomy is a key treatment in **Polycythemia vera** to reduce **hyperviscosity** symptoms. - This condition features increased red blood cell mass, which is directly addressed by phlebotomy. *Hemochromatosis* - In **Hemochromatosis**, phlebotomy is employed to lower **iron overload** by removing excess iron from the body. - This reduces the risk of complications such as **liver cirrhosis** and **diabetes** associated with iron excess. *Porphyria cutanea tarda* - Therapeutic phlebotomy is sometimes used in cases of **Porphyria cutanea tarda** to manage iron levels as a potential precipitating factor [2]. - It helps alleviate symptoms and prevent complications associated with **photosensitivity** and skin lesions [2].
Orthopaedics
3 questionsMedial snapping knee syndrome is due to involvement of -
Flexor Digitorum Profundus tendon avulsion injury leads to -
The K nail can be used for all of the following types of fractures except -
NEET-PG 2015 - Orthopaedics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1031: Medial snapping knee syndrome is due to involvement of -
- A. Gastrocnemius origin
- B. Lateral collateral ligament
- C. Quadriceps Tendon
- D. Pes Anserinus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Pes Anserinus*** - The **pes anserinus bursa** and its associated tendons (sartorius, gracilis, semitendinosus) can cause medial knee pain and snapping if inflamed or irritated. - This is a common cause of **medial snapping knee syndrome**, particularly in athletes or individuals with valgus deformity. *Quadriceps Tendon* - The **quadriceps tendon** is located anteriorly, connecting the quadriceps muscles to the patella, and is not typically involved in medial snapping. - Issues with the quadriceps tendon usually present as anterior knee pain or tendinitis. *Gastrocnemius origin* - The **gastrocnemius origin** is at the distal femur and its involvement would typically cause posterior knee pain or symptoms related to calf muscle function. - It does not commonly cause medial knee snapping. *Lateral collateral ligament* - The **lateral collateral ligament (LCL)** is on the lateral side of the knee and its involvement would cause lateral knee pain or instability. - It is not associated with medial snapping knee syndrome.
Question 1032: Flexor Digitorum Profundus tendon avulsion injury leads to -
- A. Jersey Finger (Correct Answer)
- B. Extensor tendon injury
- C. Ulnar collateral ligament injury
- D. Central slip injury
Explanation: ***Jersey Finger*** - **Jersey finger** is a common name for an avulsion injury of the **flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon** from its insertion on the distal phalanx. - This injury typically occurs when the finger is forcibly extended while the FDP tendon is contracting, often seen in sports where a player grabs an opponent's jersey. *Extensor tendon injury* - An **extensor tendon injury** involves the tendons on the dorsal side of the hand, responsible for extending the fingers. - This is distinct from a **flexor tendon injury**, which involves tendons on the palmar side. *Ulnar collateral ligament injury* - An **ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) injury** most commonly affects the thumb's metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint, often called **"skier's thumb"**. - This injury involves damage to the ligament supporting the joint, not an avulsion of a flexor tendon. *Central slip injury* - A **central slip injury** affects the middle slip of the extensor digitorum communis tendon over the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint. - Untreated, it can lead to a **Boutonnière deformity**, which is characterized by PIP joint flexion and distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint hyperextension.
Question 1033: The K nail can be used for all of the following types of fractures except -
- A. Isthmic femur shaft fractures
- B. Intertrochanteric fractures (Correct Answer)
- C. Low subtrochanteric fractures
- D. Distal femur shaft fractures
Explanation: ***Intertrochanteric fractures*** - The K nail (specifically, the Kuntscher nail) is a **straight intramedullary nail** primarily designed for diaphyseal fractures. - It is **not suitable for intertrochanteric fractures** as these are metaphyseal and involve the proximal femur, requiring implants that offer greater stability in this region, such as cephalomedullary nails or plates. *Isthmic femur shaft fractures* - The **Kuntscher nail** was originally developed for and is well-suited for **isthmic femur shaft fractures** due to the narrow canal providing good cortical fixation. - Its design as a straight, broad nail fits snugly in the isthmus, providing excellent stability. *Low subtrochanteric fractures* - While more challenging, **K nails can be used for low subtrochanteric fractures**, especially if the fracture extends into the diaphyseal region. - However, newer implants like **cephalomedullary nails** are often preferred due to better biomechanical stability in this region. *Distal femur shaft fractures* - **K nails can be employed for distal femoral shaft fractures** if the fracture pattern allows for adequate fixation distal to the isthmus without compromising knee joint function. - The nail must be long enough to achieve stability, and the lack of proper locking mechanisms in traditional K nails may be a limiting factor compared to locked intramedullary nails.
Pediatrics
1 questionsMost common site for bone marrow aspiration in neonates is -
NEET-PG 2015 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1031: Most common site for bone marrow aspiration in neonates is -
- A. Anterior superior iliac crest
- B. Posterior superior iliac crest
- C. Sternum
- D. Anteromedial tibia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Anteromedial tibia*** - The **anteromedial tibia** is the preferred site in neonates due to its relatively **large marrow cavity**, superficial location, and reduced risk of vital organ injury. - This site is easily accessible and provides a good yield of marrow cells, making it suitable for diagnostic purposes in newborns. *Anterior superior iliac crest* - While a common site for bone marrow aspiration in older children and adults, the **anterior superior iliac crest** can be more challenging and poses a greater risk in neonates due to their smaller bone structures. - The iliac crest offers less bony prominence and a thinner cortex in neonates, increasing the difficulty of the procedure and potential for sampling error. *Posterior superior iliac crest* - The **posterior superior iliac crest** is another common site in older children and adults but is generally avoided in neonates due to the difficulty in positioning and the risk of damaging vital structures in the vicinity. - It requires prone positioning and offers less superficial bone, making it a less practical and safe choice for neonates compared to the tibia. *Sternum* - **Sternal aspiration** is generally contraindicated in neonates and young children due to the thinness of the sternal bone and proximity to vital structures like the heart and great vessels. - There is a high risk of **perforation** of the sternum and injury to underlying organs, making this site unsafe for bone marrow aspiration in this age group.
Physiology
1 questionsOsteoclasts have all of the following functions except -
NEET-PG 2015 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1031: Osteoclasts have all of the following functions except -
- A. Receptor for parathormone (Correct Answer)
- B. Ruffled border
- C. Bone resorption
- D. RANK ligand production
Explanation: ***Receptor for parathormone*** - **Osteoclasts** do not directly have receptors for **parathormone (PTH)**; instead, **osteoblasts** have PTH receptors. - When PTH binds to osteoblasts, they release factors (like **RANKL**) that stimulate osteoclast activity, thus indirectly regulating bone resorption. *Bone resorption* - **Osteoclasts** are specialized cells primarily responsible for **resorbing bone matrix**, a critical process in bone remodeling. - They secrete **acids and enzymes** to break down the mineral and organic components of bone. *Ruffled border* - The **ruffled border** is a characteristic morphological feature of active osteoclasts, representing a highly folded plasma membrane. - This specialized structure increases the surface area for the secretion of **protons and lysosomal enzymes** into the bone-resorbing compartment. *RANK ligand production* - **Osteoclasts** do not produce **RANK ligand (RANKL)**; rather, they have **RANK receptors** that bind to RANKL produced by **osteoblasts and stromal cells**. - The binding of RANKL to RANK is essential for the **differentiation, activation, and survival** of osteoclasts.