NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Bilateral parotid enlargement occurs in all, Except:

Chronic pancreatitis. ***SLE*** - **Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)** typically does not present with **bilateral parotid enlargement**, which is more characteristic of other conditions. - Salivary gland involvement in SLE is less prevalent and usually not the primary clinical feature associated with the disease. *HIV* - **HIV** infection can lead to **bilateral parotid enlargement** due to associated conditions such as lymphadenopathy and infections like **salivary gland infections**. [1] - **Lymphoid tissue** hyperplasia in response to HIV is another factor contributing to this enlargement. *Sjogren's syndrome* - **Sjogren's syndrome** is a common cause of **bilateral parotid enlargement** due to inflammatory infiltrates affecting the salivary glands. - Patients typically experience **xerostomia** (dry mouth) and **xerophthalmia** (dry eyes) alongside gland enlargement [2]. *Chronic pancreatitis* - Patients with **chronic pancreatitis** may develop **bilateral parotid enlargement** due to associated changes such as **sialadenosis** from malnutrition and electrolyte imbalances. - The enlargement occurs as a **compensatory mechanism** related to the pancreatic pathology affecting nearby structures.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a common complication of acute pancreatitis?

Hypercalcemia. ***Hypercalcemia*** - Acute pancreatitis is primarily associated with **increased amylase levels** and **hyperlipidemia**, while hypercalcemia is generally a separate condition. - It is not a classical complication or result of acute pancreatitis, but rather might be a cause in cases like **hyperparathyroidism** [1]. *Subcutaneous fat necrosis* - This occurs as a result of **lipolysis** during acute pancreatitis due to the release of **lipases** into circulation [1]. - It is characterized by the presence of **fat necrosis** on the abdomen or buttocks. *Increased amylase level* - A hallmark of acute pancreatitis is **elevated levels of amylase** and sometimes lipase, indicating pancreatic inflammation [1]. - The rise typically occurs within the first 24 hours of the onset of pancreatitis. *Hyperlipidemia* - This is often found in acute pancreatitis due to excess **lipolysis**, leading to elevated triglycerides in the blood [1]. - It can be both a cause and a consequence of pancreatic inflammation, contributing to the disease process [1].

Q: Chronic hemolytic anaemia is associated with which of the following -

Black Pigment stone of the gall bladder. ***Black Pigment stone of the gall bladder*** - Chronic hemolytic anemia leads to increased **bilirubin**, particularly unconjugated bilirubin, which can result in the formation of **black pigment stones** [1]. - These stones are associated with conditions causing **excess bilirubin production**, such as sickle cell disease and thalassemia. *Brown Pigment stone of the gall bladder* - Brown pigment stones are primarily associated with **infection** and **biliary tract disorders**, not directly with chronic hemolytic anemia. - They are mainly composed of **calcium bilirubinate**, which arises in cases of **bacterial infections** or parasitic infestations. *Intestinal Obstruction* - While hemolytic anemia can have various complications, it is **not directly linked with intestinal obstruction**. - Obstruction typically arises from **mechanical causes** such as adhesions, tumors, or hernias, rather than from hemolytic processes. *Uric acid Renal Calculus* - Uric acid stones are formed due to conditions leading to **hyperuricemia** and are not a primary consequence of chronic hemolytic anemia. - They are often associated with **gout** and **certain metabolic disorders**, rather than hemolytic processes.

Q: All of the following are clinical features suggestive of tracheoesophageal fistula except -

Fever. ***Fever*** - **Fever is NOT a primary clinical feature** of tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF) itself. - While fever might occur as a **complication** if aspiration pneumonia develops, it is not a direct presenting sign of TEF. - The classic presentation of TEF occurs in **newborns within hours of birth** and involves the "3 Cs" - not fever. *Choking and Coughing* - Part of the classic **"3 Cs" triad** (Choking, Coughing, Cyanosis) of TEF presentation. - Occurs during the **first feeding attempt** when milk enters the trachea through the abnormal fistulous connection. - This is a **cardinal diagnostic feature** that should immediately raise suspicion for TEF. *Regurgitation* - **Immediate regurgitation** of feeds is characteristic, especially in TEF with esophageal atresia (most common type - Type C). - The **blind-ending proximal esophageal pouch** prevents normal passage of saliva and feeds, causing regurgitation. - Often accompanied by **excessive drooling and frothy secretions** from the mouth and nose. *Cyanosis* - The third component of the **"3 Cs" triad** and a key clinical feature. - Results from **aspiration of feeds or saliva** into the trachea and lungs, causing acute respiratory distress. - May also occur from **laryngospasm** as a protective reflex when fluid enters the airway.

Q: A 70 year old male complaining of per rectal bleeding was diagnosed with rectal/anorectal cancer. The distal margin of the tumor was 5 cm from the anal verge. The treatment of choice would be -

Low anterior resection. ***Low anterior resection*** - A tumor located 5 cm from the anal verge is considered a **low rectal tumor**, which is typically amenable to a **low anterior resection** with sphincter preservation. - This procedure aims for complete tumor removal while preserving anal function, which is often achievable when the distal margin allows for a safe distal resection margin (usually 1-2 cm). *Palliative Radiotherapy* - This is typically reserved for patients with advanced, **unresectable disease** or those who are not candidates for surgery due to comorbidities, aiming to alleviate symptoms rather than cure. - The scenario describes a potentially resectable tumor, making curative surgery the preferred initial approach. *Abdominoperineal resection* - This procedure involves the removal of the rectum, anus, and creation of a permanent colostomy, typically reserved for very **low rectal tumors** that are extremely close to or involve the anal sphincter, and cannot safely achieve a negative distal margin with sphincter preservation. - A tumor 5 cm from the anal verge usually allows for a sphincter-sparing procedure like low anterior resection. *Local Excision* - **Local excision (transanal excision)** is suitable for very superficial, small, well-differentiated tumors without lymph node involvement, typically T1N0M0 tumors. - The question does not provide details on tumor depth or nodal status, but a 5 cm tumor usually indicates a need for a more comprehensive resection to ensure oncological clearance.

Q: Which of the following statements about Hirschsprung disease is incorrect?

The non-peristaltic affected segment is dilated. ***The non-peristaltic affected segment is dilated*** - In Hirschsprung disease, the **aganglionic segment** is typically **constricted** and **narrow**, not dilated, due to continuous contraction without relaxation. - The healthy colon proximal to the affected segment becomes dilated due to the obstruction caused by the constricted, aganglionic segment. *Absence of Ganglion cells in the involved segment* - This statement is **correct**. Hirschsprung disease is fundamentally characterized by the **absence of intramural ganglion cells** (Meissner and Auerbach plexuses) in a segment of the distal colon. - This aganglionosis results in a failure of relaxation and normal peristalsis in the affected bowel segment. *Swenson, Duhamel, and Soave are surgical procedures for this condition* - This statement is **correct**. These are the classic and most common **pull-through surgical procedures** used to treat Hirschsprung disease. - They involve resecting the aganglionic segment and pulling the normal, ganglionated bowel down to the anus. *Mainly presents in infancy* - This statement is **correct**. Hirschsprung disease is primarily a **congenital condition** and is typically diagnosed in newborns and infants. - Common presenting symptoms include **failure to pass meconium** within the first 24-48 hours of life, abdominal distension, and bilious vomiting.

Q: Among pathological lead points, the commonest cause of intussusception is -

Meckel's diverticulum. ***Meckel's diverticulum*** - Among **pathological lead points** specifically, **Meckel's diverticulum** is the most common cause of intussusception. - It is a true congenital diverticulum that can act as a lead point when it becomes inverted, inflamed, or has associated ectopic tissue or tumors. - While overall intussusception in children is mostly idiopathic, when a **pathological lesion** is identified, Meckel's diverticulum is the leading cause. - Seen in approximately 2% of the population, it follows the "rule of 2s" and is the most frequent anatomical abnormality causing pathological intussusception in pediatric patients. *Hypertrophy of submucous Peyer's patches* - **Peyer's patch hypertrophy** is the most common cause of intussusception **overall** in children (90% of cases), typically following viral infections. - However, this represents **idiopathic intussusception**, not a true pathological lead point, as no discrete anatomical lesion is identified. - The question specifically asks for pathological lead points, which excludes this idiopathic mechanism. *Submucous lipoma* - A **submucous lipoma** can serve as a pathological lead point for intussusception, but is much rarer. - More commonly seen in adults rather than children. - While it is a true pathological lesion, it is less frequent than Meckel's diverticulum as a lead point. *Polyp* - **Polyps** (adenomatous, hamartomatous, or inflammatory) can act as pathological lead points. - More common in adults and in specific syndromes (e.g., Peutz-Jeghers syndrome). - Less frequent than Meckel's diverticulum among pathological causes in the pediatric population.

Q: What is the most important presenting feature of periampullary carcinoma?

Jaundice. ***Jaundice*** - **Painless obstructive jaundice** is the hallmark symptom, occurring early due to the tumor's proximity to the common bile duct. - The obstruction of bile flow leads to the accumulation of **bilirubin**, causing yellow discoloration of the skin and eyes. *Abdominal Pain* - While **abdominal pain** can occur, it is often a later symptom and is less specific than jaundice for early diagnosis. - Pain typically arises from tumor growth, invasion of surrounding structures, or pancreatic involvement. *Unintentional Weight Loss* - **Unintentional weight loss** is a common constitutional symptom of many advanced malignancies, including periampullary carcinoma. - However, it usually manifests at a later stage and is not the initial, specific presenting feature that prompts investigation. *Palpable Abdominal Mass* - A **palpable abdominal mass** is rare in early periampullary carcinoma, as these tumors are typically small and deeply seated. - Its presence usually indicates advanced disease with significant tumor burden or metastasis.

Q: What is the best marker to assess prognosis after surgery for colon carcinoma?

CEA. ***CEA*** - Carcinoembryonic antigen (**CEA**) is a well-established tumor marker for monitoring colorectal cancer post-surgery and assessing prognosis [1]. - Elevated **CEA levels** after surgery may indicate recurrence or residual disease, making it valuable in follow-up care [1]. *CA 19-9* - Primarily associated with **pancreatic** and **biliary tract cancers**, and not specific for colon carcinoma. - While it may elevate in some gastrointestinal malignancies, it is not the best indicator for prognosis after colon cancer surgery. *Alpha fetoprotein* - Mostly used for monitoring **hepatocellular carcinoma** and germ cell tumors, not colorectal malignancies. - Elevated levels are not typically correlated with prognosis in colon cancer patients. *CA-125* - Mainly utilized as a tumor marker for **ovarian cancer** and some other malignancies, not specifically for colon carcinoma. - Its use in colorectal cancer prognosis is limited and lacks relevance in this context. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 253-254.

Q: All of the following are surgical options in the management of esophageal carcinoma except -

Sistrunk operation. ***Sistrunk operation*** - The **Sistrunk operation** is a surgical procedure specifically designed for the removal of a **thyroglossal duct cyst**, not for esophageal carcinoma. - This procedure involves excising the cyst along with the central portion of the hyoid bone and the tract leading to the foramen cecum to prevent recurrence. *Ivor Lewis Approach* - The **Ivor Lewis approach** is a common and established surgical technique for **esophagectomy**, involving both abdominal and right thoracic incisions for tumor resection and reconstruction. - It is often used for tumors in the mid to distal esophagus. *Mckeown's Approach* - The **McKeown's approach** is another well-known surgical technique for **esophagectomy**, typically used for more proximal esophageal tumors. - This involves three incisions: abdominal, right thoracic, and cervical, allowing for extensive lymphadenectomy. *Transhiatal removal* - **Transhiatal esophagectomy** is a surgical option for esophageal cancer that involves abdominal and cervical incisions without a thoracic incision. - This approach is often favored in patients with significant comorbidities who may not tolerate a full thoracotomy.

Question 1

Bilateral parotid enlargement occurs in all, Except:

Accepted Answer

Chronic pancreatitis

Answer

HIV

Answer

SLE

Answer

Mumps

Question 2

Which of the following is NOT a common complication of acute pancreatitis?

Accepted Answer

Hypercalcemia

Answer

Subcutaneous fat necrosis

Answer

Hyperlipidemia

Answer

Increased amylase level

Question 3

Chronic hemolytic anaemia is associated with which of the following -

Accepted Answer

Black Pigment stone of the gall bladder

Answer

Brown Pigment stone of the gall bladder

Answer

Uric acid Renal Calculus

Answer

Intestinal Obstruction

Question 4

All of the following are clinical features suggestive of tracheoesophageal fistula except -

Accepted Answer

Fever

Answer

Choking and Coughing

Answer

Regurgitation

Answer

Cyanosis

Question 5

A 70 year old male complaining of per rectal bleeding was diagnosed with rectal/anorectal cancer. The distal margin of the tumor was 5 cm from the anal verge. The treatment of choice would be -

Accepted Answer

Low anterior resection

Answer

Palliative Radiotherapy

Answer

Local Excision

Answer

Abdominoperineal resection

Question 6

Which of the following statements about Hirschsprung disease is incorrect?

Accepted Answer

The non-peristaltic affected segment is dilated

Answer

Absence of ganglion cells in the involved segment

Answer

Mainly presents in infancy

Answer

Swenson, Duhamel, and Soave are surgical procedures for this condition

Question 7

Among pathological lead points, the commonest cause of intussusception is -

Accepted Answer

Meckel's diverticulum

Answer

Submucous lipoma

Answer

Polyp

Answer

Hypertrophy of submucous peyer's patches

Question 8

What is the most important presenting feature of periampullary carcinoma?

Accepted Answer

Jaundice

Answer

Abdominal Pain

Answer

Unintentional Weight Loss

Answer

Palpable Abdominal Mass

Question 9

What is the best marker to assess prognosis after surgery for colon carcinoma?

Accepted Answer

CEA

Answer

CA 19-9

Answer

CA-125

Answer

Alpha fetoprotein

Question 10

All of the following are surgical options in the management of esophageal carcinoma except -

Accepted Answer

Sistrunk operation

Answer

Ivor Lewis Approach

Answer

McKeown's Approach

Answer

Transhiatal removal

NEET-PG 2015

General Medicine

Internal Medicine

Pediatrics

Surgery