NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following structures is present in an XY child but absent in an XX child?

Prostate gland. ***Prostate gland*** - The **prostate gland** is the most characteristic male-specific accessory reproductive organ that is **definitively present in XY and absent in XX individuals**. - It develops from the **urogenital sinus** under the influence of **dihydrotestosterone (DHT)** during embryonic development. - The prostate is a **substantial glandular structure** that surrounds the urethra and produces approximately 30% of seminal fluid. - It has **no homologous structure in females**—there is no female equivalent organ. *Incorrect: Urethral glands (Cowper's glands)* - **Cowper's glands (bulbourethral glands)** are indeed male-specific structures present only in XY individuals. - However, they are **homologous to Bartholin's glands** in females—meaning both develop from similar embryonic tissue (urogenital sinus). - While the question technically could accept this answer, the **prostate gland is the more definitive answer** as it is larger, more clinically significant, and has no female homologue. - Cowper's glands are small pea-sized glands that contribute to pre-ejaculate fluid. *Incorrect: Ovaries* - **Ovaries** are the primary female gonads present in **XX individuals**, not XY individuals [1]. - They produce ova and female sex hormones (estrogen and progesterone) [1]. - In XY individuals, the **testes** develop instead under the influence of the SRY gene. *Incorrect: Vestibular glands (Bartholin's glands)* - **Bartholin's glands** are female-specific structures present in **XX individuals**, not XY individuals. - Located at the posterior vaginal opening, they secrete mucus for vaginal lubrication. - They are homologous to Cowper's glands in males but are distinct structures.

Q: Which one of the following agents sensitizes the myocardium to catecholamines?

Halothane. ***Halothane*** - **Halothane** sensitizes the myocardium to the arrhythmogenic effects of **catecholamines**, leading to an increased risk of ventricular arrhythmias, especially in the presence of exogenous adrenaline. - This sensitization occurs due to its effect on myocardial **calcium ion** regulation and increased automaticity in cardiac pacemaker cells. *Isoflurane* - **Isoflurane** causes minimal sensitization of the myocardium to catecholamines compared to halothane. - It maintains **cardiac output** with a dose-dependent decrease in systemic vascular resistance. *Ether* - **Diethylether** historically caused sympathetic stimulation, which could mask some depressant effects but did not primarily sensitize the myocardium to arrhythmias from exogenous catecholamines. - Its use has largely been replaced due to its flammability and slower induction/recovery. *Propofol* - **Propofol** generally causes myocardial depression and vasodilation, but it does **not sensitize** the myocardium to catecholamines in a clinically significant way that increases arrhythmogenic risk. - It often leads to a decrease in **blood pressure** and heart rate.

Q: Which of the following is characterized by a solitary painless ulcer on genitalia?

Syphilis. ***Syphilis*** - Primary syphilis typically presents as a **painless chancre** (ulcer) at the site of infection, usually the **genitalia**. - The painless nature is a key differentiating feature as it often goes unnoticed, allowing the disease to progress. *Genital herpes* - Characterized by multiple, small, often painful vesicles or ulcers that may coalesce [1]. - Lesions are typically tender or painful, unlike the **painless chancre** of syphilis [1]. *Traumatic injury* - While a traumatic injury can cause a solitary ulcer, it is usually painful and often associated with a clear history of trauma. - The ulcer's morphology and healing process may differ from a classic syphilitic chancre. *Chancroid* - Caused by *Haemophilus ducreyi*, chancroid presents as one or more painful, tender ulcers with ragged, undermined borders. - This is a significant differentiator from the **painless ulcer** seen in primary syphilis.

Q: Hutchinson's Triad is specifically associated with which type of syphilis?

Congenital Syphilis. ***Congenital Syphilis*** - **Hutchinson's Triad** is a classic constellation of symptoms specific to **congenital syphilis**, reflecting the long-term effects of *in utero* infection [1]. - The triad includes **Hutchinson's teeth** (notched incisors), **interstitial keratitis** (corneal inflammation), and **sensorineural hearing loss**. *Tertiary syphilis* - This stage is characterized by **gummas**, **cardiovascular syphilis** (e.g., aortitis), and **neurosyphilis**, but not Hutchinson's triad [1]. - These manifestations develop years after initial infection in adults. *Primary syphilis* - The primary stage is marked by the appearance of a **painless chancre** at the site of infection [1]. - It does not involve the systemic, long-term complications seen in congenital syphilis. *Secondary Syphilis* - This stage typically presents with a **diffuse maculopapular rash**, **lymphadenopathy**, and sometimes **condylomata lata** [1]. - These are acute systemic symptoms, distinct from the developmental abnormalities of Hutchinson's triad.

Q: Which of the following antibodies is highly specific for systemic lupus erythematosus?

Anti-Sm. ***Anti-Sm*** - The **Anti-Sm antibody** is highly specific for **systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)**, with a specificity of over 99% [1]. - It is often associated with **renal involvement** and more severe disease manifestations [1]. *Anti-Centromere* - Mostly associated with **limited scleroderma**, not SLE, and indicates **creatodermal** changes. - Often found in patients with **Raynaud's phenomenon** and **pulmonary hypertension**, distinct from SLE features. *Anti-U1RNP* - Typically seen in **mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD)**, indicating a combination of features from various autoimmune diseases [1]. - While it can be present in SLE patients, it is not specific to SLE and can be found in other conditions as well. *Anti-RO-1* - Also known as **Anti-SSA**, these antibodies are associated with Sjögren's syndrome, as well as SLE [1]. - They are not specific for SLE as they can appear in other autoimmune diseases, marking their lack of specificity.

Q: A 45 year old lawyer presents with pain in the abdomen more so in the epigastric region that worsens with eating spicy food and is relieved by bending forward. Complications of the above mentioned condition could be all except:

Splenic Vein Thrombosis. ***Splenic Vein Thrombosis*** - The patient's symptoms (epigastric pain worsening with spicy food, relieved by bending forward) are highly suggestive of **pancreatitis**, not peptic ulcer disease [1]. **Splenic vein thrombosis** is a known complication of chronic pancreatitis due to inflammation and compression of the splenic vein [2]. - While pancreatitis can cause significant morbidity, **splenic vein thrombosis** is a specific vascular complication associated with prolonged inflammation of the pancreas, leading to localized portal hypertension and potentially isolated gastric varices. *Perforation* - **Perforation** (specifically of a peptic ulcer or potentially surrounding bowel in severe pancreatitis) is a severe complication that can occur in conditions causing abdominal pain, but it is not the *exception* among the given options for the likely underlying condition indicated by the patient's symptoms (pancreatitis) [3]. - This complication typically leads to **peritonitis**, a medical emergency requiring immediate surgical intervention [3]. *Bleeding* - **Bleeding** (e.g., from a pancreatic pseudocyst rupturing into the gastrointestinal tract or from localized varices secondary to portal hypertension in pancreatitis) is a recognized complication of the patient's likely underlying condition [1]. - Gastrointestinal bleeding can also result from **gastric erosions** or ulcers exacerbated by ongoing inflammation. *Gastric Outlet Obstruction* - **Gastric outlet obstruction** can occur as a complication of severe or chronic pancreatitis, often due to **inflammation**, **fibrosis**, or **pseudocyst formation** compressing the duodenum [1]. - This typically presents with **postprandial vomiting** and early satiety, which can arise in the context of chronic pancreatic inflammation.

Q: Which condition is associated with Streptococcus bovis infection?

Colorectal cancer. ***Colorectal cancer*** - *Streptococcus gallolyticus* (formerly known as *Streptococcus bovis* biotype I) infection, particularly **bacteremia** or **endocarditis**, has a strong association with underlying **colorectal cancer**. - It is hypothesized that the bacteria may play a role in **tumorigenesis** or that the cancerous lesions provide an entry point for the bacteria into the bloodstream. *Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)* - While patients with CLL are **immunocompromised** and prone to infections, there is no specific association between *Streptococcus bovis* and CLL. - Infections in CLL patients are typically due to encapsulated bacteria, such as *Streptococcus pneumoniae* or *Haemophilus influenzae*. *Hairy cell leukemia (HCL)* - Patients with HCL often experience **immunosuppression** due to neutropenia and monocytopenia, leading to increased susceptibility to infections. - However, there is no direct or specific link between *Streptococcus bovis* infection and HCL itself. *Multiple myeloma (MM)* - Patients with multiple myeloma have **impaired humoral immunity** and are at risk for infections, especially from encapsulated bacteria. - There is no established specific association between *Streptococcus bovis* infection and multiple myeloma.

Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding placental site trophoblastic disease?

It secretes human placental lactogen. ***It secretes human placental lactogen*** - Placental site trophoblastic tumor (PSTT) characteristically consists of intermediate trophoblasts which secrete **human placental lactogen (hPL)**. - Unlike choriocarcinoma, PSTT secretes relatively low levels of **human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)**. *Has a highly malignant potential* - PSTT generally has a **good prognosis** if the disease is confined to the uterus, with a survival rate of over 95%. - It has a low metastatic potential compared to choriocarcinoma, with metastases occurring in only about 15% of cases. *Mainly contains syncytiotrophoblasts* - PSTT is composed predominantly of **intermediate trophoblasts** that infiltrate the myometrium, rather than syncytiotrophoblasts or cytotrophoblasts. - The distinctive feature is the proliferation of these intermediate trophoblasts at the implantation site. *The treatment of choice is hysterectomy followed by chemotherapy* - **Hysterectomy** is generally the primary treatment for PSTT confined to the uterus, and it often cures the disease. - **Chemotherapy** is usually reserved for metastatic or recurrent disease, or in cases of extensive local invasion, and is not a routine follow-up after an uncomplicated hysterectomy.

Q: What is the primary change in fetal circulation that occurs at birth?

Closure of the foramen ovale. ***Closure of the foramen ovale*** - The **foramen ovale** undergoes functional closure within minutes of birth, making it the **primary immediate circulatory change** - At birth, the first breath causes **dramatic decrease in pulmonary vascular resistance** and **increased pulmonary blood flow**, which raises **left atrial pressure** - Simultaneously, umbilical cord clamping **increases systemic vascular resistance** and **decreases right atrial pressure** (loss of placental return) - This **pressure gradient reversal** (left atrial pressure > right atrial pressure) causes the **septum primum** to be pushed against the **septum secundum**, achieving functional closure - This immediately separates the systemic and pulmonary circulations, which is the **most critical primary change** in transitioning from fetal to neonatal circulation *Closure of the patent ductus arteriosus* - The **ductus arteriosus** undergoes **functional closure over 10-15 hours** after birth, followed by **anatomical closure over 2-3 weeks** - Closure occurs due to increased arterial oxygen tension and decreased prostaglandin E2 levels, causing smooth muscle constriction - While important, this is a **secondary change** that occurs more gradually compared to the immediate foramen ovale closure *Closure of the ductus venosus* - The **ductus venosus** closes functionally within 3-7 days as umbilical venous flow ceases - This redirects portal blood through the liver but does not directly impact the critical pulmonary-systemic circulation separation *Increased activity of the right ventricle* - After birth, the **left ventricle** becomes dominant as it pumps against higher systemic vascular resistance - The right ventricle actually experiences **decreased afterload** due to falling pulmonary vascular resistance - This is a consequence of, not the primary change in, the circulatory transition

Q: What is the best marker to assess prognosis after surgery for colon carcinoma?

CEA. ***CEA*** - Carcinoembryonic antigen (**CEA**) is a well-established tumor marker for monitoring colorectal cancer post-surgery and assessing prognosis [1]. - Elevated **CEA levels** after surgery may indicate recurrence or residual disease, making it valuable in follow-up care [1]. *CA 19-9* - Primarily associated with **pancreatic** and **biliary tract cancers**, and not specific for colon carcinoma. - While it may elevate in some gastrointestinal malignancies, it is not the best indicator for prognosis after colon cancer surgery. *Alpha fetoprotein* - Mostly used for monitoring **hepatocellular carcinoma** and germ cell tumors, not colorectal malignancies. - Elevated levels are not typically correlated with prognosis in colon cancer patients. *CA-125* - Mainly utilized as a tumor marker for **ovarian cancer** and some other malignancies, not specifically for colon carcinoma. - Its use in colorectal cancer prognosis is limited and lacks relevance in this context. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 253-254.

Question 1

Which of the following structures is present in an XY child but absent in an XX child?

Accepted Answer

Prostate gland

Answer

Urethral glands (Cowper's glands)

Answer

Ovaries

Answer

Vestibular glands (Bartholin's glands)

Question 2

Which one of the following agents sensitizes the myocardium to catecholamines?

Accepted Answer

Halothane

Answer

Isoflurane

Answer

Ether

Answer

Propofol

Question 3

Which of the following is characterized by a solitary painless ulcer on genitalia?

Accepted Answer

Syphilis

Answer

Genital herpes

Answer

Traumatic injury

Answer

Chancroid

Question 4

Hutchinson's Triad is specifically associated with which type of syphilis?

Accepted Answer

Congenital Syphilis

Answer

Tertiary syphilis

Answer

Primary syphilis

Answer

Secondary Syphilis

Question 5

Which of the following antibodies is highly specific for systemic lupus erythematosus?

Accepted Answer

Anti-Sm

Answer

Anti-RO-1

Answer

Anti-Centromere

Answer

Anti-U1RNP

Question 6

A 45 year old lawyer presents with pain in the abdomen more so in the epigastric region that worsens with eating spicy food and is relieved by bending forward. Complications of the above mentioned condition could be all except:

Accepted Answer

Splenic Vein Thrombosis

Answer

Bleeding

Answer

Gastric Outlet Obstruction

Answer

Perforation

Question 7

Which condition is associated with Streptococcus bovis infection?

Accepted Answer

Colorectal cancer

Answer

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

Answer

Hairy cell leukemia (HCL)

Answer

Multiple myeloma (MM)

Question 8

Which of the following statements is true regarding placental site trophoblastic disease?

Accepted Answer

It secretes human placental lactogen

Answer

Has a highly malignant potential

Answer

Mainly contains syncytiotrophoblasts

Answer

The treatment of choice is hysterectomy followed by chemotherapy

Question 9

What is the primary change in fetal circulation that occurs at birth?

Accepted Answer

Closure of the foramen ovale

Answer

Closure of the ductus venosus

Answer

Increased activity of the right ventricle

Answer

Closure of the patent ductus arteriosus

Question 10

What is the best marker to assess prognosis after surgery for colon carcinoma?

Accepted Answer

CEA

Answer

CA 19-9

Answer

CA-125

Answer

Alpha fetoprotein

NEET-PG 2015

Anatomy

Anesthesiology

Dermatology

Internal Medicine

Microbiology

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Physiology

Surgery