Anatomy
2 questionsEmbryo gets implanted at what stage of development?
Most common location of ectopic salivary gland is -
NEET-PG 2015 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1021: Embryo gets implanted at what stage of development?
- A. Two cell stage
- B. Four cell stage
- C. Morula
- D. Blastocyst (Correct Answer)
Explanation: Blastocyst - Implantation into the uterine wall occurs when the embryo has developed into a blastocyst, typically around day 6 post-fertilization [1]. - The blastocyst consists of an inner cell mass (which forms the embryo) and an outer layer called the trophoblast (which contributes to the placenta) [1]. Two cell stage - This stage occurs very early in development, usually within the first 24-30 hours after fertilization [1]. - At this point, the embryo is still in the fallopian tube and has not yet reached the uterus for implantation [1]. Four cell stage - The four-cell stage is also an early cleavage stage, occurring around 2 days post-fertilization [1]. - Like the two-cell stage, the embryo is still in transport through the fallopian tube and is not ready for implantation [1]. Morula - The morula is a solid ball of cells formed by cleavage, typically around day 3-4 post-fertilization [1]. - While it has moved closer to the uterus, it has not yet formed the distinct inner cell mass and trophoblast necessary for successful implantation [1].
Question 1022: Most common location of ectopic salivary gland is -
- A. Posterior triangle
- B. Parathyroid gland
- C. Cervical lymph nodes (Correct Answer)
- D. Anterior mediastinum
Explanation: Cervical lymph nodes - **Ectopic salivary gland tissue** is most frequently found within or adjacent to **cervical periparotid lymph nodes**. - This is thought to be due to inclusion of salivary gland anlage within lymph nodes during embryological development. *Anterior mediastinum* - While ectopic tissues can occur in the mediastinum, **salivary gland tissue** is not a common finding there. - The **mediastinum** is more commonly associated with ectopic **thymic** or **thyroid** tissue. *Posterior triangle* - The **posterior triangle of the neck** is a common site for various neck masses , but **ectopic salivary gland tissue** is rare in this location. - Masses here are more typically **lymphadenopathy**, **brachial cleft cysts**, or **fibromas**. *Parathyroid gland* - The **parathyroid glands** are endocrine glands located near or within the thyroid, and are not typically associated with containing **ectopic salivary gland tissue**. - Their embryological development is distinct from that of salivary glands.
Internal Medicine
6 questionsWhich fluid is ideally given for a patient experiencing dehydration?
What is the appropriate fluid management in the case of an intracerebral hemorrhage?
Which of the following statements about drug-induced SLE is NOT true?
A man working in a hot environment and consuming large amounts of water without replacing salts is likely to develop -
After a road traffic accident, a patient presented to casualty with vitals showing BP of 90/60 mm Hg and heart rate of 56 bpm. Which kind of shock occurs?
Classic triad in Renal cell carcinoma includes all of the following, Except:
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1021: Which fluid is ideally given for a patient experiencing dehydration?
- A. Plasma
- B. Normal Saline (Correct Answer)
- C. Blood
- D. 5% dextrose
Explanation: ***Normal Saline*** - **Normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride)** is an **isotonic solution** that effectively increases **extracellular fluid volume**, making it ideal for treating **dehydration** and hypovolemia [1]. - It closely mimics the **osmolality of plasma** and stays predominantly in the intravascular space, helping to restore circulating volume [1]. *Plasma* - **Plasma** is primarily used for **coagulation factor deficiencies** or volume expansion in cases of severe **hypoproteinemia**, not routine dehydration. - It contains **proteins and clotting factors** that are not typically needed for simple dehydration and carries risks of **allergic reactions and transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)**. *Blood* - **Blood transfusions** are indicated for patients with **significant anemia** or **acute blood loss**, not for generalized dehydration. - Using blood for dehydration would be inappropriate due to risks such as **transfusion reactions**, **infections**, and **iron overload**. *5% dextrose* - **5% dextrose in water (D5W)** is an **isotonic solution initially**, but once the dextrose is metabolized, it becomes **hypotonic**, causing free water to shift into the cells [1]. - While it provides some free water, it is not ideal for primary rehydration in cases of significant volume depletion due to its lack of electrolytes and potential for causing **hyponatremia** if given in large quantities [1].
Question 1022: What is the appropriate fluid management in the case of an intracerebral hemorrhage?
- A. Normal saline (Correct Answer)
- B. Colloids
- C. Blood transfusion
- D. Hypertonic fluids
Explanation: **Normal saline** - **Normal saline (0.9% NaCl)** is the preferred fluid for volume maintenance in patients with **intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH)** as it is an isotonic crystalloid. - It helps maintain an adequate **cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP)** and avoids hypotonic effects that could worsen cerebral edema. *Colloids* - **Colloids** are generally avoided in ICH as they can potentially **increase intracranial pressure (ICP)** due to their osmotic effects within the damaged blood-brain barrier. - They are also associated with **increased risk of cerebral edema** and poor neurological outcomes in stroke patients. *Blood transfusion* - **Blood transfusions** are indicated only in cases of significant **anemia** (typically hemoglobin < 7-8 g/dL) or active bleeding where oxygen delivery to the brain is compromised. - Routine blood transfusion without clear indication is not part of standard fluid management for ICH and carries risks. *Hypertonic fluids* - **Hypertonic saline (e.g., 3% NaCl)** or **mannitol** are used specifically for the acute management of **elevated intracranial pressure (ICP)**, not for routine fluid maintenance. - While they improve cerebral perfusion by reducing brain edema, their continuous use as maintenance fluid can lead to severe electrolyte imbalances and dehydration.
Question 1023: Which of the following statements about drug-induced SLE is NOT true?
- A. Female: Male ratio=1:9 (Correct Answer)
- B. CNS involvement not common
- C. Renal involvement not common
- D. Anti-histone antibodies are negative
Explanation: ***Female: Male ratio=1:9*** - Drug-induced lupus erythematosus (DILE) typically has no significant **gender predilection**, unlike idiopathic SLE which has a marked female predominance (9:1 female: male ratio) [1]. - This statement is incorrect because the male:female ratio is closer to 1:1, or even male predominance, making the given ratio of 1:9 (female:male) false. *Anti-histone antibodies are negative* - **Anti-histone antibodies** are positive in 95% of patients with drug-induced lupus, making this statement incorrect. - The presence of anti-histone antibodies is a hallmark diagnostic feature of drug-induced lupus. *CNS involvement not common* - **Central nervous system (CNS) manifestations** are indeed uncommon in drug-induced lupus erythematosus. - This statement accurately reflects a key differentiating feature from idiopathic systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), where CNS involvement can be significant [1]. *Renal involvement not common* - **Renal involvement** is rare in drug-induced lupus erythematosus. - This statement is true and helps distinguish drug-induced lupus from idiopathic SLE, where renal disease (lupus nephritis) is a frequent and serious complication [1].
Question 1024: A man working in a hot environment and consuming large amounts of water without replacing salts is likely to develop -
- A. Heat hyperpyrexia
- B. Heat cramps (Correct Answer)
- C. Heat stroke
- D. Heat encephalopathy
Explanation: ***Heat cramps*** - **Heat cramps** are painful, involuntary muscle spasms that occur during or after strenuous activity in a hot environment, especially when there is excessive sweating and **inadequate salt replacement**. - The consumption of **large amounts of water** without replacing electrolytes further dilutes the remaining electrolytes, exacerbating the problem. *Heat hyperpyrexia* - **Heat hyperpyrexia** is characterized by a very high core body temperature (typically >106°F or 41.1°C) without central nervous system dysfunction [1]. - While it involves extreme heat exposure, the primary problem described (muscle cramps due to fluid and **electrolyte imbalance**) is not hyperpyrexia itself but a milder heat illness. *Heat stroke* - **Heat stroke** is a severe, life-threatening condition involving a dangerously elevated body temperature (>104°F or 40°C) along with **central nervous system dysfunction** (e.g., altered mental status, seizures) [1], [2]. - Although strenuous activity and heat exposure contribute, the predominant symptoms described are muscle cramps, not the systemic collapse characteristic of heat stroke. *Heat encephalopathy* - **Heat encephalopathy** refers to the neurological manifestations of severe heat illness, particularly **heat stroke**, involving altered mental status, confusion, and possibly seizures. - While heat cramps are a form of heat illness, they primarily involve muscle symptoms and do not typically include direct brain dysfunction as the primary feature.
Question 1025: After a road traffic accident, a patient presented to casualty with vitals showing BP of 90/60 mm Hg and heart rate of 56 bpm. Which kind of shock occurs?
- A. Cardiogenic
- B. Neurogenic (Correct Answer)
- C. Hypovolemic shock
- D. Septic shock
Explanation: ***Neurogenic*** - This patient presents with **hypotension** (BP 90/60 mm Hg) and **bradycardia** (heart rate 56 bpm), which is a classic presentation of neurogenic shock due to **loss of sympathetic tone** following a spinal cord injury [2]. - The road traffic accident suggests a potential **spinal cord injury**, leading to disruption of the autonomic nervous system's control over heart rate and vascular tone. *Cardiogenic* - Cardiogenic shock is characterized by **hypotension** and **tachycardia**, often due to the heart's inability to pump blood effectively, such as in a myocardial infarction [1]. - The reported **bradycardia** in this patient makes cardiogenic shock unlikely. *Hypovolemic shock* - Hypovolemic shock results from significant **fluid loss**, leading to **hypotension** and a compensatory **tachycardia**. - The presence of **bradycardia** rules out hypovolemic shock, as the body would typically try to increase heart rate to compensate for volume depletion. *Septic shock* - Septic shock is caused by a severe **infection**, leading to widespread vasodilation, **hypotension**, and often **tachycardia** with signs of systemic inflammation. - There is no indication of infection, and the **bradycardia** is inconsistent with the typical presentation of septic shock.
Question 1026: Classic triad in Renal cell carcinoma includes all of the following, Except:
- A. Hematuria
- B. Hypertension (Correct Answer)
- C. Flank mass
- D. Abdominal Pain
Explanation: ***Hypertension*** - While hypertension can occur in patients with renal cell carcinoma due to **renin secretion** or other mechanisms, it is **not considered one of the classic triad symptoms**. - The classic triad represents symptoms that historically led to diagnosis, though most RCCs are now discovered incidentally. *Hematuria* - **Gross or microscopic hematuria** is a common symptom of renal cell carcinoma [1], resulting from tumor invasion into the collecting system. - It is one of the **three classic symptoms** associated with advanced disease. *Flank mass* - A palpable **flank mass** indicates a sizable tumor infiltrating the renal parenchyma and is a classic sign of renal cell carcinoma [1]. - This symptom is often associated with later-stage disease. *Abdominal Pain* - **Flank pain** or abdominal pain is a frequent symptom of renal cell carcinoma, which may be caused by tumor growth, hemorrhage, or obstruction. - This symptom, along with hematuria and a flank mass, constitutes the **classic diagnostic triad**.
Pharmacology
2 questionsWhich of the following methods can reduce flushing caused by niacin?
Intracranial pressure may be increased by all of the following drugs except -
NEET-PG 2015 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1021: Which of the following methods can reduce flushing caused by niacin?
- A. All of the options (Correct Answer)
- B. Tachyphylaxis
- C. Laropiprant
- D. Premedication with aspirin
Explanation: ***All of the options*** - **All three methods** (tachyphylaxis, laropiprant, and premedication with aspirin) are effective strategies for reducing niacin-induced flushing. - This demonstrates that multiple pharmacological and physiological approaches can mitigate this common side effect of niacin therapy. **Why each method works:** **Tachyphylaxis:** - Refers to the rapid decrease in response to a drug after repeated administration - With continued niacin use, tolerance develops and flushing intensity decreases over time - This is a natural adaptive response, though not an immediate solution for initial flushing episodes **Laropiprant:** - A selective antagonist of the **prostaglandin D2 receptor 1 (DP1)** - Specifically developed to reduce niacin-induced flushing by blocking prostaglandin D2-mediated vasodilation - Was marketed in combination with niacin (though later withdrawn due to other safety concerns) **Premedication with aspirin:** - **Aspirin** or other NSAIDs taken approximately 30 minutes before niacin administration - Reduces flushing by inhibiting **prostaglandin synthesis**, particularly prostaglandin D2 - Prostaglandins are key mediators of the cutaneous vasodilation that causes flushing
Question 1022: Intracranial pressure may be increased by all of the following drugs except -
- A. Quinolones
- B. Aminoglycosides (Correct Answer)
- C. Vitamin A
- D. Corticosteroids
Explanation: ***Aminoglycosides*** - **Aminoglycosides** are not typically associated with increasing intracranial pressure. Their primary toxicities include **ototoxicity** and **nephrotoxicity**. - There is no established physiological mechanism by which aminoglycosides directly elevate ICP. *Vitamin A* - **Vitamin A toxicity**, particularly the chronic form of hypervitaminosis A, is a known cause of **idiopathic intracranial hypertension (pseudotumor cerebri)**, which directly increases ICP. - This occurs due to an unknown mechanism that leads to impaired CSF absorption or increased CSF production. *Corticosteroids* - While corticosteroids are often used to reduce cerebral edema and ICP, their **withdrawal**, particularly after prolonged use, can lead to rebound increases in ICP. - In certain susceptible individuals, or with paradoxical reactions, corticosteroids can also induce **pseudotumor cerebri**, leading to elevated ICP. *Quinolones* - **Quinolones** (fluoroquinolones) have been implicated in cases of **drug-induced intracranial hypertension (pseudotumor cerebri)**. - The mechanism is not fully understood but is thought to involve effects on **cerebrospinal fluid dynamics**.