NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following statements about actinic lichen planus is false?

Associated with severe pruritus. ***Associated with severe pruritus*** - While other forms of lichen planus, especially the typical cutaneous type, are often associated with **severe pruritus**, actinic lichen planus is typically characterized by **mild or absent pruritus**. - Its presentation is often more focused on pigmentary changes and papules in sun-exposed areas rather than intense itching. *Autoimmune etiology* - **Lichen planus**, including its actinic variant, is recognized as an **autoimmune disease**. - It involves a **T-cell-mediated immune response** against basal keratinocytes. *Violaceous brown papules* - Actinic lichen planus commonly presents with **violaceous, brown, or hyperpigmented papules and plaques**. - These lesions often exhibit a subtle **annular or reticulated pattern**. *Usually affects exposed areas of body* - As its name suggests ("actinic" referring to light), this variant of lichen planus preferentially affects **sun-exposed areas** such as the face, neck, and dorsal hands. - This distribution distinguishes it from classic lichen planus, which can occur anywhere but often affects the flexor surfaces of the wrists, ankles, and oral mucosa.

Q: In a patient presenting with a painful swollen joint and a history of high uric acid levels, which condition is most likely indicated by this clinical presentation?

Gout. ***Gout*** - **Gout** is characterized by sudden, severe attacks of pain, swelling, redness, and tenderness in one or more joints, most often the **big toe** [1],[2]. - A history of **high uric acid levels** (hyperuricemia) is a primary risk factor, as it leads to the formation of **uric acid crystals** in the joint [1],[3]. *Ankylosing spondylitis* - This condition is a chronic inflammatory disease primarily affecting the **spine and sacroiliac joints**, causing stiffness and pain, especially in the morning. - It is not directly associated with **high uric acid levels** or generally presenting as an acute, single swollen joint attack. *Osteoarthritis* - **Osteoarthritis** is a degenerative joint disease characterized by the breakdown of cartilage over time, leading to pain and stiffness, especially with activity. - While it can cause joint swelling, it is typically a gradual process, not an acute, intensely painful attack, and is not linked to **uric acid levels**. *Rheumatoid arthritis* - **Rheumatoid arthritis** is an autoimmune disease causing chronic inflammation, primarily affecting multiple small joints symmetrically. - It presents with prolonged morning stiffness and is not directly caused by **high uric acid levels**, nor is its typical presentation an acute monoarthritis.

Q: Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with cauda equina syndrome?

Herniated disc. ***Herniated disc*** - A **large central disc herniation**, especially at the L4-L5 or L5-S1 level, often compresses multiple nerve roots of the **cauda equina** [1]. - This compression leads to the characteristic symptoms of **saddle anesthesia**, **bowel/bladder dysfunction**, and **bilateral leg weakness**. *Trauma* - While **severe trauma** to the lumbar spine (e.g., fractures, dislocations) can cause cauda equina syndrome, it is a less common cause than disc herniation [1]. - Trauma typically involves an acute, high-energy injury, distinct from the more gradual onset seen with disc pathology. *Tumor* - **Spinal tumors**, both primary and metastatic, can compress the cauda equina, but they are relatively rare compared to disc herniations [1]. - Tumor-related cauda equina syndrome often presents with more insidious symptom progression and may include systemic symptoms or a history of malignancy. *Spinal stenosis* - **Spinal stenosis** can cause compression of nerve roots, typically leading to neurogenic claudication. - While severe stenosis can contribute to cauda equina symptoms, it generally involves diffuse narrowing over multiple levels and is less likely to cause acute, severe cauda equina syndrome than a single, large disc herniation.

Q: Which of the following is not associated with Carney's triad?

Atrial myxoma. ***Atrial myxoma*** - Atriomyxoma is not part of **Carney's triad**, which primarily includes **paraganglioma**, **chondroma**, and **gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST)**. - Carney's triad is a rare genetic condition associated with **multiple neoplasms**, and atrial myxomas are cardiac tumors, not part of this triad. *Paraganglioma* - Paragangliomas are tumors derived from **neuroendocrine cells**, and they are one of the key components of **Carney's triad**. - They typically arise in **chromaffin tissue**, which is involved in catecholamine secretion. *Chondroma* - Chondromas are benign tumors of **cartilage**, also recognized as a component of **Carney's triad**. - They are often found in the **bones** or soft tissues, but they are part of the neoplasms associated with this condition. *GIST* - Gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GISTs) are significant neoplasms linked to **Carney's triad**, arising from **interstitial cells of Cajal** in the GI tract. - They are characterized by specific mutations and can be a source of gastrointestinal symptoms in affected individuals.

Q: Which of the following drugs can lead to pemphigus?

Penicillamine. ***Penicillamine*** - **Penicillamine** is a well-known drug that can induce **pemphigus**, often through mechanisms involving alterations in **desmosome structure** or function. - The drug's sulfhydryl groups are thought to interfere with the integrity of **desmoglein proteins**, leading to blister formation. *Isoniazid* - **Isoniazid** is a first-line antituberculosis drug primarily associated with **hepatotoxicity** and **peripheral neuropathy**. - It is not typically implicated in the development of **pemphigus**. *Carbamazepine* - **Carbamazepine** is an anticonvulsant that can cause various cutaneous reactions, most notably **Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS)** and **toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN)**. - While it can cause severe skin reactions, **pemphigus** is not a common side effect of carbamazepine. *Furosemide* - **Furosemide** is a loop diuretic that can cause **photosensitivity**, rashes, and rarely, severe skin reactions like **erythema multiforme**. - It is not recognized as a drug that induces **pemphigus**.

Q: All of the following are surgical options in the management of esophageal carcinoma except -

Sistrunk operation. ***Sistrunk operation*** - The **Sistrunk operation** is a surgical procedure specifically designed for the removal of a **thyroglossal duct cyst**, not for esophageal carcinoma. - This procedure involves excising the cyst along with the central portion of the hyoid bone and the tract leading to the foramen cecum to prevent recurrence. *Ivor Lewis Approach* - The **Ivor Lewis approach** is a common and established surgical technique for **esophagectomy**, involving both abdominal and right thoracic incisions for tumor resection and reconstruction. - It is often used for tumors in the mid to distal esophagus. *Mckeown's Approach* - The **McKeown's approach** is another well-known surgical technique for **esophagectomy**, typically used for more proximal esophageal tumors. - This involves three incisions: abdominal, right thoracic, and cervical, allowing for extensive lymphadenectomy. *Transhiatal removal* - **Transhiatal esophagectomy** is a surgical option for esophageal cancer that involves abdominal and cervical incisions without a thoracic incision. - This approach is often favored in patients with significant comorbidities who may not tolerate a full thoracotomy.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a principle of negative pressure wound therapy?

Clearance of infection. ***Clearance of infection*** - While negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT) can help manage heavily colonized wounds by removing exudate and reducing bacterial burden, it is **not a primary treatment for active infection**. - **Systemic antibiotics** or local antiseptics are required to truly clear an infection, as NPWT alone cannot eliminate deep-seated pathogens. *Stabilization of wound environment* - NPWT helps to **stabilize the wound bed** by holding it in place, protecting it from external contamination and mechanical stress. - This creates an optimal environment for **wound healing** by preventing disruption of newly formed granulation tissue. *Macrodeformation of the wound* - The negative pressure applied to the wound surface causes the wound edges to be drawn together, leading to **macrodeformation**. - This effect reduces wound size and promotes **epithelialization** and **wound contraction**. *Decreased edema* - NPWT actively removes **excess interstitial fluid** and exudate from the wound bed, leading to a significant reduction in edema. - This reduction in swelling improves **perfusion** to the wound tissues and promotes better healing.

Q: What is the best management for a human bite?

Ampicillin plus sulbactam. ***Ampicillin plus sulbactam*** - This combination is effective against the common **aerobic and anaerobic bacteria** found in human bite wounds, including **Eikenella corrodens** and oral streptococci. - The sulbactam component provides **beta-lactamase inhibition**, which is crucial as many oral bacteria produce these enzymes, rendering ampicillin alone ineffective. *Clindamycin plus TMP-SMX* - While clindamycin covers many anaerobes, it has **poor activity against Eikenella corrodens**, a key pathogen in human bites. - **TMP-SMX (trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole)** also lacks reliable coverage against many oral anaerobes and Eikenella. *Fluoroquinolone* - **Fluoroquinolones** generally have good Gram-negative coverage but often possess **limited activity against oral anaerobes and streptococci** relevant to human bites. - There is a **growing concern for resistance** with fluoroquinolone monotherapy in these types of infections. *Doxycycline* - Doxycycline has a broad spectrum but is **not the first-line choice for human bites** due to inconsistent activity against common oral anaerobes and Eikenella corrodens. - It may be considered in specific cases, but **empiric coverage needs to be broader** for initial management of these **polymicrobial infections**.

Q: What is the commonest site of peptic ulcer?

First part of the duodenum. ***First part of the duodenum*** - The **duodenal bulb** (first part of the duodenum) is the most common location for peptic ulcers due to its proximity to the pylorus, where it's exposed to **acidic chyme** and susceptible to **H. pylori infection**. - The **mucosal defenses** in the duodenum are often less robust compared to the stomach, making it more vulnerable to acid-pepsin aggression. *Second part of the duodenum* - Ulcers in the **second part of the duodenum** are relatively rare compared to the first part. - This section receives bile and pancreatic secretions which help to **neutralize stomach acid**, providing greater protection. *Distal third of the stomach* - Ulcers in the **distal third of the stomach** are less common than in the first part of the duodenum. - While **gastric ulcers** do occur, they are more frequently found in the **antrum or lesser curvature** of the stomach. *Pylorus of the stomach* - Ulcers can occur in the **pylorus**, but they are not as frequent as those in the **duodenal bulb**. - Pyloric ulcers are considered a type of **gastric ulcer** and can be associated with gastric outlet obstruction.

Q: Most common site for Cystic Hygroma is -

Lower third of neck. ***Lower third of neck*** - **Cystic hygromas** (also known as **lymphatic malformations**) most commonly occur in the **posterior triangle of the neck**, which is located in the lower lateral aspect of the neck [1]. - Approximately **75-80%** of cystic hygromas are found in the neck region, with the **posterior triangle** being the predominant site. - The **posterior jugular lymph sac** fails to connect properly with the venous system during embryonic development, leading to these cystic malformations in this characteristic location [1]. - The posterior triangle encompasses the lower lateral neck, making "lower third of neck" an acceptable description of this most common site. *Overlying the parotid gland* - While lymphatic malformations can occur in the parotid region, this represents only about **10-15%** of cases. - This is a less common site compared to the posterior triangle of the neck. - Lesions in this area might raise concern for other parotid pathologies like **pleomorphic adenoma** or **hemangioma**. *Along the Zygomatic Prominence* - This is an unusual location for a cystic hygroma, as the lymphatic drainage and embryonic development in this area are not typically associated with these malformations. - Lesions here might suggest different developmental or neoplastic etiologies such as **dermoid cysts** or **vascular malformations**. *Post auricular* - The post-auricular region is not a common site for cystic hygromas. - Swelling in this area could be due to other conditions like **mastoiditis**, **lymphadenopathy**, or **sebaceous cysts**.

Question 1

Which of the following statements about actinic lichen planus is false?

Accepted Answer

Associated with severe pruritus

Answer

Violaceous brown papules

Answer

Usually affects exposed areas of body

Answer

Autoimmune etiology

Question 2

In a patient presenting with a painful swollen joint and a history of high uric acid levels, which condition is most likely indicated by this clinical presentation?

Accepted Answer

Gout

Answer

Ankylosing spondylitis

Answer

Osteoarthritis

Answer

Rheumatoid arthritis

Question 3

Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with cauda equina syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Herniated disc

Answer

Trauma

Answer

Tumor

Answer

Spinal stenosis

Question 4

Which of the following is not associated with Carney's triad?

Accepted Answer

Atrial myxoma

Answer

GIST

Answer

Chondroma

Answer

Paraganglioma

Question 5

Which of the following drugs can lead to pemphigus?

Accepted Answer

Penicillamine

Answer

Carbamazepine

Answer

Isoniazid

Answer

Furosemide

Question 6

All of the following are surgical options in the management of esophageal carcinoma except -

Accepted Answer

Sistrunk operation

Answer

Ivor Lewis Approach

Answer

McKeown's Approach

Answer

Transhiatal removal

Question 7

Which of the following is NOT a principle of negative pressure wound therapy?

Accepted Answer

Clearance of infection

Answer

Macrodeformation of the wound

Answer

Decreased edema

Answer

Stabilization of wound environment

Question 8

What is the best management for a human bite?

Accepted Answer

Ampicillin plus sulbactam

Answer

Clindamycin plus TMP-SMX

Answer

Fluoroquinolone

Answer

Doxycycline

Question 9

What is the commonest site of peptic ulcer?

Accepted Answer

First part of the duodenum

Answer

Second part of the duodenum

Answer

Distal third of the stomach

Answer

Pylorus of the stomach

Question 10

Most common site for Cystic Hygroma is -

Accepted Answer

Lower third of neck

Answer

Overlying the parotid gland

Answer

Along the Zygomatic Prominence

Answer

Post auricular

NEET-PG 2015

Dermatology

Internal Medicine

Orthopaedics

Pathology

Pharmacology

Surgery