Obstetrics and Gynecology
6 questionsWhich of the following conditions is ruled out in a twin pregnancy of the same age and sex?
Duration of second stage of labor (propulsive stage) in multipara
What would be the type of presentation when the engaging diameter is mentovertical?
Which of the following statements about abdominal pregnancy is true?
A 45-year-old female with a history of G5P4A0L4 has her last menstrual period (LMP) on August 25, 2014. What is the gestational age in weeks on May 11, 2015?
Which of the following ovarian tumors is most prone to undergo torsion during pregnancy?
NEET-PG 2015 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1001: Which of the following conditions is ruled out in a twin pregnancy of the same age and sex?
- A. Monozygotic twins
- B. Superfetation (Correct Answer)
- C. Superfecundation
- D. None of the following
Explanation: ***Superfetation*** - **Superfetation** refers to the fertilization of an ovum when another pregnancy is already established in the uterus, resulting in two fetuses of **different gestational ages**. - As the question specifies a twin pregnancy of the **same age**, superfetation is ruled out. *Monozygotic twins* - **Monozygotic twins** originate from a single zygote that splits, resulting in genetically identical individuals of the **same sex** and age. - This condition is consistent with the given scenario of same-sex, same-aged twins. *Superfecundation* - **Superfecundation** is the fertilization of two or more ova from the same ovulatory cycle by sperm from **different acts of coitus** (which may involve different partners). - The twins are of the **same gestational age** (same cycle) but are **dizygotic**, and can be either the same sex or different sexes. - This condition is NOT ruled out by the criteria given in the question. *None of the following* - This option is incorrect because **superfetation** is definitively ruled out by the criteria of the question (twins of the same age).
Question 1002: Duration of second stage of labor (propulsive stage) in multipara
- A. Approximately 20 minutes (Correct Answer)
- B. 40 minutes
- C. 1 hour
- D. 10 minutes
Explanation: ***Approximately 20 minutes*** - In **multiparas**, the second stage of labor, also known as the **propulsive stage**, is typically shorter due to prior experience with childbirth. - While there is variability, an average duration of **20 minutes** for this stage is commonly observed in multiparous women. *40 minutes* - A duration of 40 minutes for the propulsive stage would be considered on the longer side for a **multipara**, often approaching the upper limits of normal. - While not necessarily abnormal, it is longer than the **average expected time** for multiparous women. *1 hour* - A second stage duration of **1 hour** in a multipara would generally be considered prolonged and might warrant intervention or closer monitoring. - This duration is more consistent with the **upper limit of normal** in nulliparous women or cases of arrest of labor in multiparas. *10 minutes* - While some multiparous women may have a very rapid second stage, **10 minutes** is on the shorter end of the average. - This could indicate a **precipitous labor**, which can carry its own risks such as maternal lacerations and neonatal complications.
Question 1003: What would be the type of presentation when the engaging diameter is mentovertical?
- A. Face
- B. Vertex
- C. Brow (Correct Answer)
- D. Breech
Explanation: ***Brow*** - The **mentovertical diameter** (13.5 cm) is the engaging diameter in **brow presentation**. - This diameter extends from the **chin (mentum) to the vertex** of the fetal head. - Brow presentation occurs when the fetal head is **partially deflexed**, presenting the area between the orbital ridge and the anterior fontanelle. - This is the **largest anteroposterior diameter** of the fetal head and makes vaginal delivery extremely difficult or impossible. *Face* - In **face presentation**, the fetal head is **completely hyperextended**, and the engaging diameter is **submentobregmatic** (9.5 cm), not mentovertical. - This diameter extends from below the chin to the bregma. - Face presentation can allow vaginal delivery if the mentum is anterior. *Vertex* - **Vertex presentation** is the most common and favorable presentation, with the fetal head fully flexed. - The engaging diameter is **suboccipitobregmatic** (9.5 cm), from the subocciput to the bregma. - The occiput presents first in this presentation. *Breech* - **Breech presentation** involves the fetal buttocks or feet presenting first. - The engaging diameter is **bitrochanteric** (transverse diameter), not related to cephalic diameters like mentovertical.
Question 1004: Which of the following statements about abdominal pregnancy is true?
- A. Primary abdominal pregnancy is a common condition.
- B. Most fetuses in abdominal pregnancies survive to term.
- C. Leaving the placenta behind can lead to infection. (Correct Answer)
- D. Separation of the placenta is always necessary.
Explanation: ***f6629bc8-61b2-4393-bb4c-9c32cd943e34*** - **Placenta acreta-like implantation** of the placenta into intra-abdominal organs or the abdominal wall makes removal dangerous due to potential damage and massive hemorrhage. - While leaving it in place can lead to serious complications like **infection**, **abscess formation**, or **secondary hemorrhage** as it degenerates, the risks of immediate removal often outweigh these, necessitating careful observation and management. *020c0067-d7b2-4fc2-85ae-2d6ba40ab437* - **Primary abdominal pregnancy** is extremely rare, accounting for less than 1% of all extrauterine pregnancies. - Abdominal pregnancies are generally **secondary** due to tubal abortion or rupture with subsequent reimplantation. *3560b92d-a63d-4966-8872-e4f56a82882f* - **Fetal survival rates** in abdominal pregnancies are very low, with a high incidence of **fetal anomalies** and **perinatal mortality**. - The abnormal placental implantation and lack of amniotic fluid protection lead to significant **growth restriction** and compression deformities. *5ab987e0-68ca-43f2-a8f2-238a5eb0c4f8* - The decision to remove the **placenta** in an abdominal pregnancy is complex and depends on its implantation site; often, it is left in situ due to the high risk of **hemorrhage** from attempting removal. - Removing the placenta can cause **uncontrollable bleeding**, especially if it is attached to vital organs or large blood vessels.
Question 1005: A 45-year-old female with a history of G5P4A0L4 has her last menstrual period (LMP) on August 25, 2014. What is the gestational age in weeks on May 11, 2015?
- A. 37 weeks (Correct Answer)
- B. 32 weeks
- C. 35 weeks
- D. 40 weeks
Explanation: ***37 weeks*** - Calculating from **LMP (August 25, 2014)** to assessment date **(May 11, 2015)**: Days remaining in August: 6 days (26th-31st), September through April: 242 days, Days in May: 11 days. - **Total: 259 days ÷ 7 = exactly 37 weeks** gestational age using standard **Naegele's rule** calculation method. *32 weeks* - This option would correspond to an assessment date in early April 2015, which is **too early** given the LMP and assessment date. - It suggests a **5-week shorter** pregnancy duration than the actual interval calculated. *35 weeks* - This option indicates an assessment around the third week of April 2015, which is still **earlier** than the May 11, 2015, date. - It implies a **2-week shorter** gestational period than the correct calculation shows. *40 weeks* - This option would correspond to an assessment date in early June 2015, **beyond** the May 11, 2015, assessment date. - This gestational age is **too long** for the specified dates and would suggest the patient is at **term** or past her due date.
Question 1006: Which of the following ovarian tumors is most prone to undergo torsion during pregnancy?
- A. Serous cystadenoma
- B. Mucinous cystadenoma
- C. Dermoid cyst (Correct Answer)
- D. Theca lutein cyst
Explanation: ***Dermoid cyst*** - **Dermoid cysts**, or mature cystic teratomas, are the **most common ovarian tumors** to undergo torsion, especially during pregnancy due to their mobility and moderate size. - They are often **unilateral** and benign, containing various mature tissues such as hair, teeth, and sebaceous material. *Serous cystadenoma* - While common, **serous cystadenomas** are generally **less mobile** than dermoid cysts and thus have a lower propensity for torsion. - They are typically filled with **clear, watery fluid** and can grow to be quite large. *Mucinous cystadenoma* - **Mucinous cystadenomas** tend to be **larger** than dermoid cysts and are less prone to torsion due to their size and often fixed position within the pelvis. - They are filled with **thick, gelatinous mucin** and can reach massive sizes, sometimes filling the entire abdominal cavity. *Theca lutein cyst* - **Theca lutein cysts** are usually **bilateral** and occur with conditions like **gestational trophoblastic disease** or **ovarian hyperstimulation**. - While they can be large, their often bilateral nature and underlying pathological conditions make them **less likely to independently twist** as a primary event compared to a freely mobile dermoid cyst.
Pharmacology
1 questionsWhat is the primary treatment indication of folic acid?
NEET-PG 2015 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1001: What is the primary treatment indication of folic acid?
- A. Prevention of neural tube defects in pregnancy
- B. Treatment of megaloblastic anemia (Correct Answer)
- C. Management of hemoglobinopathies
- D. None of the above
Explanation: ***Treatment of megaloblastic anemia*** - Folic acid is essential for **DNA synthesis** and cell division, and its deficiency leads to impaired red blood cell maturation, causing **megaloblastic anemia**. - Supplementation with folic acid effectively reverses the hematological abnormalities in **folate-deficient megaloblastic anemia**. *Prevention of neural tube defects in pregnancy* - While folic acid is crucial for preventing **neural tube defects** (NTDs), this is a **prophylactic** rather than a primary therapeutic use. - The focus of this question is on the *primary therapeutic* use, implying treatment of an existing condition. *Management of hemoglobinopathies* - Hemoglobinopathies like **sickle cell anemia** or **thalassemia** are genetic disorders affecting hemoglobin structure or production, not primarily due to folic acid deficiency. - Folic acid may be given to these patients to support increased red blood cell turnover, but it does not address the underlying genetic defect. *None of the above* - This option is incorrect because folic acid has a clear primary therapeutic role in treating **megaloblastic anemia**.
Physiology
3 questionsDuring pregnancy, the increased size of the pituitary gland is primarily due to the enlargement of which hormone-secreting cells?
Cardiac output in pregnancy shows significant increase from which week of gestation
Oxygen consumption increases in pregnancy by
NEET-PG 2015 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1001: During pregnancy, the increased size of the pituitary gland is primarily due to the enlargement of which hormone-secreting cells?
- A. Growth hormone
- B. Prolactin (Correct Answer)
- C. ACTH
- D. TSH
Explanation: ***Prolactin*** - During pregnancy, the number and size of **lactotrophs**, the cells that secrete prolactin, increase significantly due to high **estrogen** levels. - This **hyperplasia** and **hypertrophy** of lactotrophs contribute to the overall enlargement of the pituitary gland, preparing it for lactation. *Growth hormone* - While growth hormone is important, there isn't a primary enlargement of **somatotrophs** (GH-secreting cells) in the pituitary during pregnancy. - Furthermore, most circulating GH during pregnancy is **placental growth hormone**, rather than pituitary-derived. *ACTH* - Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is secreted by **corticotrophs**, and these cells do not undergo prominent hypertrophy or hyperplasia during normal pregnancy. - While cortisol levels increase, this is largely due to factors other than increased pituitary ACTH cell size. *TSH* - Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is secreted by **thyrotrophs**, which do not notably enlarge during pregnancy. - Thyroid gland activity increases during pregnancy, but this is mediated by **hCG** and other mechanisms, not pituitary thyrotroph growth.
Question 1002: Cardiac output in pregnancy shows significant increase from which week of gestation
- A. 25 weeks
- B. 35 weeks
- C. 5 weeks
- D. 15 weeks (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***15 weeks*** - Cardiac output shows a **significant and clinically measurable increase around 10-15 weeks of gestation**, which continues to rise, peaking between **20-28 weeks**. - This rise is primarily due to an increase in both **stroke volume** (increased by 25-30%) and **heart rate** (increased by 10-15 bpm) to meet the metabolic demands of the growing fetus and placenta. - By 15 weeks, cardiac output has typically increased by approximately **20-30% above pre-pregnancy levels**. *5 weeks* - While cardiac output does begin to rise very early in pregnancy (as early as 5-8 weeks), the increase at this stage is **subtle and not yet significant**. - At 5 weeks, the **placental circulation is still in early development**, and the hemodynamic changes are just beginning. - The question asks about **significant increase**, which is not yet established at 5 weeks. *25 weeks* - By 25 weeks, cardiac output has already completed its major rise and is at or near its **peak levels** (40-50% above baseline). - The **significant increase had already occurred** much earlier, around 10-15 weeks. - This timing represents the plateau phase rather than the initial significant increase. *35 weeks* - At 35 weeks, cardiac output remains elevated at near-peak levels but the **major increase happened much earlier** in pregnancy. - By this gestational age, the cardiovascular system has been adapted for months. - There may be minor positional variations (e.g., aortocaval compression in supine position) but no new significant increase occurs.
Question 1003: Oxygen consumption increases in pregnancy by
- A. 10%
- B. 20% (Correct Answer)
- C. 30%
- D. 40%
Explanation: ***20%*** - During **pregnancy**, the maternal **metabolic rate increases** to support fetal growth and the physiological changes occurring in the mother's body. - This increased metabolic demand leads to a **rise in oxygen consumption** by approximately 20% compared to the non-pregnant state. *10%* - A 10% increase is an **underestimation** of the physiological change in oxygen consumption during pregnancy. - The demands of supporting a growing fetus and increased maternal tissue mass require a more substantial metabolic adjustment. *30%* - While oxygen consumption does increase significantly, a 30% rise is generally considered an **overestimation** of the average increase. - The typical physiological adaptation usually falls within the 15-25% range. *40%* - A 40% increase in oxygen consumption would represent an **extreme physiological demand** that is not typically observed during an uncomplicated pregnancy. - Such a drastic increase might indicate underlying pathology rather than normal adaptation.