What is the primary clinical advantage of the occipitoanterior position in childbirth?
What is the FDA-recommended time interval between Mifepristone and Misoprostol administration in medical termination of pregnancy?
Lovset manoeuvre is used in delivery of:
Which of the following conditions is ruled out in a twin pregnancy of the same age and sex?
Which of the following conditions can lead to a prolonged second stage of labor?
What would be the type of presentation when the engaging diameter is mentovertical?
Which is false about stress urinary incontinence?
A 45-year-old female with a history of G5P4A0L4 has her last menstrual period (LMP) on August 25, 2014. What is the gestational age in weeks on May 11, 2015?
Which of the following ovarian tumors is most prone to undergo torsion during pregnancy?
In which part of the fallopian tube is ectopic pregnancy most likely to survive longer?
NEET-PG 2015 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: What is the primary clinical advantage of the occipitoanterior position in childbirth?
- A. It is the most favorable position for vaginal delivery.
- B. It allows optimal fetal head flexion reducing the presenting diameter. (Correct Answer)
- C. Anterior fontanelle is anterior in this position.
- D. It is associated with shorter labor duration and fewer complications.
Explanation: ***It allows optimal fetal head flexion reducing the presenting diameter.*** - In the occipitoanterior (OA) position, the fetal head is **well-flexed**, allowing the **smallest diameter** of the fetal head to present to the maternal pelvis - The presenting diameter is the **suboccipitobregmatic diameter** (~9.5 cm), which is the smallest anteroposterior diameter of the fetal head - This optimal flexion is the **primary clinical advantage** as it facilitates easier passage through the birth canal and reduces maternal and fetal trauma - The **occiput (posterior fontanelle)** faces anteriorly in this position, which is a key anatomical landmark used to diagnose OA position during vaginal examination *It is the most favorable position for vaginal delivery.* - While this statement is true, it is **too general** and doesn't explain the specific anatomical or mechanical reason - It describes an outcome rather than explaining the **primary clinical advantage** in terms of fetal head mechanics *Anterior fontanelle is anterior in this position.* - This statement is **anatomically incorrect** - In occipitoanterior position, the **occiput (posterior fontanelle)** is anterior, not the anterior fontanelle - The anterior fontanelle (bregma) is actually positioned **posteriorly** in the OA position *It is associated with shorter labor duration and fewer complications.* - This is a **consequence** of the favorable OA position, not the primary clinical advantage itself - The shorter labor and fewer complications result from the optimal fetal head flexion and smaller presenting diameter - This option describes an **outcome** rather than the underlying anatomical/mechanical advantage
Question 22: What is the FDA-recommended time interval between Mifepristone and Misoprostol administration in medical termination of pregnancy?
- A. 96 hours
- B. 48 hours
- C. 24-48 hours (Correct Answer)
- D. 72 hours
Explanation: ***24-48 hours*** - The FDA-approved protocol for medical abortion with mifepristone and misoprostol specifies a **24- to 48-hour interval** between the administration of the two drugs. - This timing ensures optimal efficacy as it allows mifepristone to adequately sensitize the uterus to the effects of misoprostol. *48 hours* - While 48 hours falls within the recommended range, specifically stating "48 hours" as the only option is less precise than the **24-48 hour window**. - No specific clinical advantage or disadvantage is generally reported for waiting exactly 48 hours over, for instance, 24 hours. *96 hours* - A 96-hour interval is significantly longer than the **FDA-recommended window** and is not part of the standard, evidence-based protocol. - Delaying misoprostol administration beyond 48 hours may **reduce the effectiveness** of the medical abortion and increase the risk of complications. *72 hours* - A 72-hour interval exceeds the upper limit of the **FDA-recommended window** for optimal efficacy. - While some studies have explored extended intervals, the *standard clinical practice* and FDA guidelines do not endorse 72 hours as the primary recommended interval.
Question 23: Lovset manoeuvre is used in delivery of:
- A. Arms (Correct Answer)
- B. Head
- C. Breech
- D. Foot
Explanation: ***Arms*** - The Lovset manoeuvre is specifically designed to facilitate the delivery of the **shoulders and arms** in a **breech presentation** when they are extended upwards. - This technique involves rotating the fetal trunk to bring the anterior shoulder under the pubic symphysis, allowing for the gentle extraction of the posterior arm first, followed by the anterior arm. *Head* - Delivery of the head in a breech presentation is typically managed using **Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit manoeuvre** or Piper forceps, not the Lovset manoeuvre. - The Lovset manoeuvre aims to address difficult arm delivery prior to head delivery. *Breech* - While the Lovset manoeuvre is used *during* a breech delivery, it specifically addresses **arm extraction**, not the overall delivery of the entire breech presentation. - The term "breech" refers to the fetal presentation where the buttocks or feet are presented first. *Foot* - If a foot is presenting first, it is usually a **footling breech presentation**, and the delivery of the foot itself does not typically require the Lovset manoeuvre. - The Lovset manoeuvre is reserved for extended arms, which are distinct from the initial presentation of a foot.
Question 24: Which of the following conditions is ruled out in a twin pregnancy of the same age and sex?
- A. Monozygotic twins
- B. Superfetation (Correct Answer)
- C. Superfecundation
- D. None of the following
Explanation: ***Superfetation*** - **Superfetation** refers to the fertilization of an ovum when another pregnancy is already established in the uterus, resulting in two fetuses of **different gestational ages**. - As the question specifies a twin pregnancy of the **same age**, superfetation is ruled out. *Monozygotic twins* - **Monozygotic twins** originate from a single zygote that splits, resulting in genetically identical individuals of the **same sex** and age. - This condition is consistent with the given scenario of same-sex, same-aged twins. *Superfecundation* - **Superfecundation** is the fertilization of two or more ova from the same ovulatory cycle by sperm from **different acts of coitus** (which may involve different partners). - The twins are of the **same gestational age** (same cycle) but are **dizygotic**, and can be either the same sex or different sexes. - This condition is NOT ruled out by the criteria given in the question. *None of the following* - This option is incorrect because **superfetation** is definitively ruled out by the criteria of the question (twins of the same age).
Question 25: Which of the following conditions can lead to a prolonged second stage of labor?
- A. Cephalopelvic disproportion
- B. All of the options (Correct Answer)
- C. Uterine inertia
- D. Maternal exhaustion
Explanation: ***All of the options*** - **Uterine inertia**, **maternal exhaustion**, and **cephalopelvic disproportion** are all well-established causes of a prolonged second stage of labor. - These factors either impede effective uterine contractions, reduce the mother's ability to push, or create a physical barrier to fetal descent, respectively. *Uterine inertia* - Refers to **weak** or **ineffective uterine contractions** that are insufficient to expel the fetus. - This directly prolongs the second stage by failing to provide adequate propulsive force. *Maternal exhaustion* - Occurs when the mother becomes too **tired** to effectively push, often due to a long and difficult labor. - Reduced maternal effort leads to a lack of downward pressure, extending the second stage. *Cephalopelvic disproportion* - Characterized by a mismatch between the **size of the fetal head** and the **maternal pelvis**, preventing the head from descending. - This mechanical obstruction inevitably leads to a prolonged, and often ultimately arrested, second stage of labor.
Question 26: What would be the type of presentation when the engaging diameter is mentovertical?
- A. Face
- B. Vertex
- C. Brow (Correct Answer)
- D. Breech
Explanation: ***Brow*** - The **mentovertical diameter** (13.5 cm) is the engaging diameter in **brow presentation**. - This diameter extends from the **chin (mentum) to the vertex** of the fetal head. - Brow presentation occurs when the fetal head is **partially deflexed**, presenting the area between the orbital ridge and the anterior fontanelle. - This is the **largest anteroposterior diameter** of the fetal head and makes vaginal delivery extremely difficult or impossible. *Face* - In **face presentation**, the fetal head is **completely hyperextended**, and the engaging diameter is **submentobregmatic** (9.5 cm), not mentovertical. - This diameter extends from below the chin to the bregma. - Face presentation can allow vaginal delivery if the mentum is anterior. *Vertex* - **Vertex presentation** is the most common and favorable presentation, with the fetal head fully flexed. - The engaging diameter is **suboccipitobregmatic** (9.5 cm), from the subocciput to the bregma. - The occiput presents first in this presentation. *Breech* - **Breech presentation** involves the fetal buttocks or feet presenting first. - The engaging diameter is **bitrochanteric** (transverse diameter), not related to cephalic diameters like mentovertical.
Question 27: Which is false about stress urinary incontinence?
- A. More common in men (Correct Answer)
- B. It is due to weakening of pelvic floor muscles
- C. Prostate surgery may be a cause
- D. It occurs during increased abdominal pressure
Explanation: ***More common in men*** - **Stress urinary incontinence (SUI)** is significantly more prevalent in **women** due to anatomical differences and factors like childbirth. - While it can occur in men, especially after prostate surgery, the overall incidence is higher in females. *It is due to weakening of pelvic floor muscles* - Weakening of the **pelvic floor muscles** is a primary cause of SUI, leading to insufficient support for the urethra and bladder neck. - This weakness compromises the ability to maintain urethral closure pressure during activity. *Prostate surgery may be a cause* - **Radical prostatectomy** for prostate cancer is a common cause of SUI in men, as it can damage the urethral sphincter. - Damage to the internal or external urethral sphincter during surgery impairs the ability to control urine flow. *It occurs during increased abdominal pressure* - SUI characteristically involves involuntary urine leakage during activities that increase **intra-abdominal pressure**, such as coughing, sneezing, laughing, or exercising. - This increased pressure overcomes the weakened urethral resistance, leading to urine loss.
Question 28: A 45-year-old female with a history of G5P4A0L4 has her last menstrual period (LMP) on August 25, 2014. What is the gestational age in weeks on May 11, 2015?
- A. 37 weeks (Correct Answer)
- B. 32 weeks
- C. 35 weeks
- D. 40 weeks
Explanation: ***37 weeks*** - Calculating from **LMP (August 25, 2014)** to assessment date **(May 11, 2015)**: Days remaining in August: 6 days (26th-31st), September through April: 242 days, Days in May: 11 days. - **Total: 259 days ÷ 7 = exactly 37 weeks** gestational age using standard **Naegele's rule** calculation method. *32 weeks* - This option would correspond to an assessment date in early April 2015, which is **too early** given the LMP and assessment date. - It suggests a **5-week shorter** pregnancy duration than the actual interval calculated. *35 weeks* - This option indicates an assessment around the third week of April 2015, which is still **earlier** than the May 11, 2015, date. - It implies a **2-week shorter** gestational period than the correct calculation shows. *40 weeks* - This option would correspond to an assessment date in early June 2015, **beyond** the May 11, 2015, assessment date. - This gestational age is **too long** for the specified dates and would suggest the patient is at **term** or past her due date.
Question 29: Which of the following ovarian tumors is most prone to undergo torsion during pregnancy?
- A. Serous cystadenoma
- B. Mucinous cystadenoma
- C. Dermoid cyst (Correct Answer)
- D. Theca lutein cyst
Explanation: ***Dermoid cyst*** - **Dermoid cysts**, or mature cystic teratomas, are the **most common ovarian tumors** to undergo torsion, especially during pregnancy due to their mobility and moderate size. - They are often **unilateral** and benign, containing various mature tissues such as hair, teeth, and sebaceous material. *Serous cystadenoma* - While common, **serous cystadenomas** are generally **less mobile** than dermoid cysts and thus have a lower propensity for torsion. - They are typically filled with **clear, watery fluid** and can grow to be quite large. *Mucinous cystadenoma* - **Mucinous cystadenomas** tend to be **larger** than dermoid cysts and are less prone to torsion due to their size and often fixed position within the pelvis. - They are filled with **thick, gelatinous mucin** and can reach massive sizes, sometimes filling the entire abdominal cavity. *Theca lutein cyst* - **Theca lutein cysts** are usually **bilateral** and occur with conditions like **gestational trophoblastic disease** or **ovarian hyperstimulation**. - While they can be large, their often bilateral nature and underlying pathological conditions make them **less likely to independently twist** as a primary event compared to a freely mobile dermoid cyst.
Question 30: In which part of the fallopian tube is ectopic pregnancy most likely to survive longer?
- A. Isthmus
- B. Ampulla
- C. Cornua
- D. Interstitial (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Interstitial*** - An **interstitial (intramural) pregnancy** occurs in the portion of the fallopian tube that passes through the muscular wall of the uterus, known as the **cornua**. This position allows for a larger and more distensible space, potentially accommodating the pregnancy for a longer duration before rupture. - The surrounding **myometrial tissue** can provide a temporary blood supply and structural support, leading to later presentation (often up to 12-16 weeks) and often more significant hemorrhage upon rupture due to the rich vascularization of the uterine wall. - Interstitial pregnancies account for approximately 2-4% of all ectopic pregnancies but have a higher mortality rate due to massive hemorrhage when rupture occurs. *Isthmus* - The **isthmus** is the narrowest part of the fallopian tube, making it less accommodating for an ectopic pregnancy. - Pregnancies here tend to rupture earlier (typically by 6-8 weeks) due to limited space and thinner muscular walls. - Accounts for approximately 12% of tubal ectopic pregnancies. *Ampulla* - The **ampulla** is the most common site for ectopic pregnancies (approximately 70-80%), but pregnancies here typically rupture earlier than interstitial ones (usually by 8-12 weeks). - While wider than the isthmus, it lacks the substantial myometrial support of the interstitial portion. - The ampullary wall is thin and distensible but cannot sustain pregnancy as long as the interstitial portion. *Cornua* - While the interstitial part of the tube is located within the uterine wall (cornua), \"cornua\" itself refers to the upper angles of the uterus where the fallopian tubes enter. - The term **\"cornual pregnancy\"** is sometimes used interchangeably with **\"interstitial pregnancy,\"** though some authorities distinguish between them based on precise location. - Without the specific context of \"interstitial,\" this option is less precise in identifying the segment of the fallopian tube associated with prolonged survival.