NEET-PG 2015 - Microbiology Practice Questions

Q: Which type of DNase produced by Streptococcus is known to be the most antigenic in humans?

DNase B. ***DNase B*** - **DNase B** is the most **antigenic** of the four DNases (A, B, C, D) produced by *Streptococcus pyogenes*. - Antibodies against DNase B are commonly measured as anti-DNase B titers in the diagnosis of **streptococcal infections** and their sequelae, like **acute rheumatic fever** and **post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis**, especially when ASO titers are negative. *DNase A* - While *Streptococcus pyogenes* produces **DNase A**, it is not considered the most antigenically potent or clinically relevant for antibody testing in humans. - Its antigenicity is generally **lower** than that of DNase B in response to streptococcal infection. *DNase C* - **DNase C** is another deoxyribonuclease produced by *Streptococcus pyogenes*. - Similar to DNase A, it does not elicit as strong or as consistent an **antibody response** in human infections compared to DNase B. *DNase D* - **DNase D** is the fourth type of deoxyribonuclease produced by *Streptococcus pyogenes*. - Its **antigenicity** in humans is less pronounced and less diagnostically significant than that of **DNase B**.

Q: In the context of diagnosing syphilis, which of the following is an example of a precipitation test?

Kahn test. ***Kahn test*** - The Kahn test is a **flocculation** or **precipitation** test used for diagnosing syphilis. - It detects **reagin antibodies** in the patient's serum that react with a non-treponemal antigen (cardiolipin antigen). *Rose waaler test* - The Rose Waaler test is an **agglutination test** used to detect **rheumatoid factor** in patients with rheumatoid arthritis, not syphilis. - It involves sheep red blood cells sensitized with rabbit anti-sheep erythrocyte antibody. *Widal test* - The Widal test is an **agglutination test** used for the diagnosis of **typhoid fever**, detecting antibodies against *Salmonella* O and H antigens. - It is not used for the diagnosis of syphilis. *Latex agglutination* - Latex agglutination is a general type of **agglutination test** where antigen or antibody is coated onto latex particles. - While used in various diagnoses, it is not a specific precipitation test for syphilis in the context of classic methods like the Kahn test.

Q: Which of the following tests is not classified as an in vivo test?

Elek's gel precipitation test. ***Elek's gel precipitation test*** - This test is an **in vitro** method used to detect the production of **diphtheria toxin** by *Corynebacterium diphtheriae* strains in a lab setting, not within a living organism. - It involves the precipitation of toxin and antitoxin in an agar gel, forming visible lines. *Schick test* - The Schick test is an **in vivo** test used to determine susceptibility to **diphtheria** by injecting diphtheria toxin subcutaneously and observing for a localized inflammatory reaction. - A positive reaction (inflammation) indicates a lack of protective antitoxin antibodies. *Lepromin test* - The Lepromin test is an **in vivo** test used to assess the type of **leprosy** a patient has and to evaluate their cell-mediated immune response to *Mycobacterium leprae*. - It involves the intradermal injection of lepromin antigen and observing for a delayed hypersensitivity reaction. *Tuberculin test* - Also known as the **Mantoux test**, this is an **in vivo** test used to screen for exposure to **tuberculosis** by injecting purified protein derivative (PPD) intradermally. - A positive reaction indicates a **cell-mediated immune response** to *Mycobacterium tuberculosis*.

Q: Bartonella quintana causes:

Trench fever. ***Trench fever*** - **Bartonella quintana** is the causative agent of **trench fever**, a louse-borne disease historically common during wartime. - Symptoms include **recurrent fevers**, headache, bone pain (especially in the shins), and rash. *Scrub typhus* - Scrub typhus is caused by **Orientia tsutsugamushi**, a rickettsial bacterium, not Bartonella. - It is transmitted by **chiggers** and characterized by a rash, fever, and eschar at the bite site. *Epidemic typhus* - Epidemic typhus is caused by **Rickettsia prowazekii** and is also louse-borne. - It presents with sudden high fever, severe headache, and a maculopapular rash that spares the face, palms, and soles. *Endemic typhus* - Endemic typhus (murine typhus) is caused by **Rickettsia typhi** and is transmitted by **rat fleas**. - Its symptoms are generally milder than epidemic typhus, including fever, headache, and a truncal rash.

Q: What type of immunity is primarily associated with the administration of transfer factor?

Adoptive immunity. ***Adoptive immunity (Correct)*** - **Transfer factor** consists of small, dialyzable molecules extracted from immune T lymphocytes of an immune donor - Its administration transfers **cell-mediated immunity** from donor to recipient, which defines adoptive immunity - This represents transfer of **immune cells or their products** (not antibodies), providing antigen-specific cellular immunity - Also called **adoptive immunotherapy** or adoptive transfer *Artificial passive immunity (Incorrect)* - Involves the **transfer of pre-formed antibodies** (e.g., antitoxins, immunoglobulins, antiserum) from an immune individual or animal - Provides **immediate but temporary humoral protection** - Does NOT transfer cellular immunity - this is the key distinction from adoptive immunity - Examples: Anti-rabies immunoglobulin, anti-tetanus serum *Natural active immunity (Incorrect)* - Occurs when an individual is **naturally exposed to an antigen** (infection) and produces their own antibodies and immune cells - The host's own immune system **actively responds** to develop long-lasting immunity - Example: Immunity after recovering from measles or chickenpox *Artificial active immunity (Incorrect)* - Achieved through **vaccination** with attenuated, inactivated, or subunit antigens - The recipient's body is **actively stimulated** to produce protective immunity - Provides long-lasting protection through immunological memory

Q: Salmonella and Shigella can be differentiated from other Enterobacteriaceae members by isolation on:

XLD agar. ***XLD agar*** - **Xylose Lysine Deoxycholate (XLD) agar** is a selective and differential medium used to isolate and identify *Salmonella* and *Shigella* species from other Enterobacteriaceae. - It differentiates *Salmonella* and *Shigella* based on their ability to ferment **xylose**, decarboxylate **lysine**, and produce **hydrogen sulfide (H2S)**. *MacConkey agar* - **MacConkey agar** is a selective and differential medium used to isolate Gram-negative bacteria and differentiate them based on **lactose fermentation**. - While it can grow *Salmonella* and *Shigella* (which are non-lactose fermenters), it does not specifically differentiate them from other non-lactose fermenting Enterobacteriaceae. *Mannitol salt agar* - **Mannitol salt agar (MSA)** is a selective and differential medium primarily used for the isolation of **staphylococci**. - It is highly selective due to its high salt concentration and differentiates staphylococci based on their ability to ferment **mannitol**. *BCYE medium* - **Buffered Charcoal Yeast Extract (BCYE) medium** is a specialized enrichment medium used for the isolation of **Legionella species**. - It provides specific nutrients required for the growth of *Legionella* and is not suitable for differentiating *Salmonella* and *Shigella* from other Enterobacteriaceae.

Q: Disruption of which of the following oropharyngeal commensals predisposes to candidiasis?

Streptococcus. ***Streptococcus*** - **Streptococcus** species, particularly *S. sanguinis* and *S. mitis*, are major commensals in the oral cavity that **inhibit the growth of *Candida albicans*** through competition for nutrients and production of antimicrobial substances. - Disruption of this normal **streptococcal flora**, often by broad-spectrum antibiotics, creates an environment where *Candida albicans* can proliferate, leading to candidiasis. *Staphylococcus* - **Staphylococcus** species are primarily skin and nasal commensals; while *S. aureus* can be found in the oral cavity, it is not a primary competitor against *Candida* in the same way as streptococci. - Their presence or absence is not typically a direct predisposing factor for oral candidiasis compared to the dominant streptococcal flora. *Lactobacillus* - **Lactobacillus** species are common in the gastrointestinal tract and vagina, where they maintain an acidic environment that inhibits pathogen growth; however, they are less dominant in the oropharynx as a defense against *Candida*. - While beneficial for overall host health, their disruption in the oral cavity does not typically precipitate candidiasis as directly as that of the **streptococcal flora**. *Hemophilus influenzae* - *Haemophilus influenzae* is a common inhabitant of the **upper respiratory tract** and can be an opportunistic pathogen, but it is not known to have a significant role in directly inhibiting *Candida* growth in the oropharynx. - Its presence or absence in the commensal flora in the oral cavity does not typically influence the development of candidiasis.

Q: Which of the following viruses is a member of the Herpesviridae family?

Herpes Simplex Virus. ***Herpes Simplex Virus*** - **Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)** is the type species of the *Herpesviridae* family, which includes other common human pathogens such as **cytomegalovirus** and **Epstein-Barr virus**. - Members of this family are characterized by a **double-stranded DNA genome**, an icosahedral capsid, and an envelope, and they typically cause **latent infections**. *Variola* - **Variola virus** is a member of the *Poxviridae* family, known for causing **smallpox**, a historically devastating disease. - Unlike herpesviruses, poxviruses are **large and complex DNA viruses** that replicate entirely in the cytoplasm of infected cells. *Adenovirus* - **Adenovirus** belongs to the *Adenoviridae* family and is a **non-enveloped DNA virus** known for causing a variety of conditions, including respiratory infections and conjunctivitis. - Its structure and replication cycle differ significantly from the enveloped *Herpesviridae*. *HPV* - **HPV (Human Papillomavirus)** is a member of the *Papillomaviridae* family, which are small **non-enveloped DNA viruses** associated with warts and certain cancers. - It is distinct from herpesviruses in its genomic organization, capsid structure, and disease manifestations.

Q: Which of the following is not a poxvirus?

Coxsackie virus. ***Coxsackie virus*** - The **Coxsackie virus** belongs to the family **Picornaviridae**, not Poxviridae. - It is known for causing diseases such as **hand, foot, and mouth disease**, herpangina, and myocarditis. *Vaccinia virus* - **Vaccinia virus** is a well-known member of the **Poxviridae** family, historically used in the smallpox vaccine. - It is a **large, complex DNA virus** that replicates in the cytoplasm of infected cells. *Molluscum contagiosum* - **Molluscum contagiosum virus (MCV)** is a **poxvirus** that causes a mild skin infection characterized by raised, pearly, umbilicated lesions. - It primarily infects **humans**, causing localized lesions that are spread through direct contact. *Orf virus* - **Orf virus**, also known as contagious pustular dermatitis virus, is a **poxvirus** that primarily affects sheep and goats. - It can be transmitted to humans, causing single papular or nodular lesions, usually on the fingers, hands, or forearms.

Q: Recrudescences are commonly seen in which type of malaria:

P. falciparum. ***P. falciparum*** - **Recrudescence** refers to the reappearance of malaria symptoms after a period of remission, due to the survival and subsequent increase of asexual parasites in the blood [1]. - This is common in *P. falciparum* due to the high parasite burden and its ability to sequester in deep capillaries, evading splenic clearance and developing drug resistance. *P. vivax* - *P. vivax* is known for **relapses**, which are caused by the activation of dormant liver stages called **hypnozoites**, rather than a recrudescence of blood-stage parasites [1]. - Relapses can occur months or years after the initial infection, even after the blood-stage parasites have been cleared. *P. malariae* - *P. malariae* is uniquely characterized by infections that can persist for many years, even decades, causing symptoms of **recrudescence**, although less frequently than *P. falciparum* [1]. - It has a prolonged erythrocytic cycle, which can lead to chronic low-level parasitemia and sporadic symptomatic episodes. *P. ovale* - Similar to *P. vivax*, *P. ovale* also causes **relapses** due to the presence of **hypnozoites** in the liver [1]. - While it can manifest with symptoms similar to *P. vivax*, it is generally less common and causes milder disease.

Question 1

Which type of DNase produced by Streptococcus is known to be the most antigenic in humans?

Accepted Answer

DNase B

Answer

DNase C

Answer

DNase D

Answer

DNase A

Question 2

In the context of diagnosing syphilis, which of the following is an example of a precipitation test?

Accepted Answer

Kahn test

Answer

Rose waaler test

Answer

Widal test

Answer

Latex agglutination

Question 3

Which of the following tests is not classified as an in vivo test?

Accepted Answer

Elek's gel precipitation test

Answer

Schick test

Answer

Tuberculin test

Answer

Lepromin test

Question 4

Bartonella quintana causes:

Accepted Answer

Trench fever

Answer

Scrub typhus

Answer

Epidemic typhus

Answer

Endemic typhus

Question 5

What type of immunity is primarily associated with the administration of transfer factor?

Accepted Answer

Adoptive immunity

Answer

Natural active immunity

Answer

Artificial active immunity

Answer

Artificial passive immunity

Question 6

Salmonella and Shigella can be differentiated from other Enterobacteriaceae members by isolation on:

Accepted Answer

XLD agar

Answer

MacConkey agar

Answer

Mannitol salt agar

Answer

BCYE medium

Question 7

Disruption of which of the following oropharyngeal commensals predisposes to candidiasis?

Accepted Answer

Streptococcus

Answer

Staphylococcus

Answer

Lactobacillus

Answer

Haemophilus influenzae

Question 8

Which of the following viruses is a member of the Herpesviridae family?

Accepted Answer

Herpes Simplex Virus

Answer

Variola

Answer

Adenovirus

Answer

HPV

Question 9

Which of the following is not a poxvirus?

Accepted Answer

Coxsackie virus

Answer

Molluscum contagiosum

Answer

Orf virus

Answer

Vaccinia virus

Question 10

Recrudescences are commonly seen in which type of malaria:

Accepted Answer

P. falciparum

Answer

P. vivax

Answer

P. malariae

Answer

P. ovale

NEET-PG 2015 — Microbiology