What is the PRIMARY evidence-based intervention for preventing catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs)?
Buboes form is which stage of LGV?
ABO non- secretors are more prone to ?
What is the primary cause of Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVID)?
Which of the following statements regarding Pertussis is INCORRECT?
Which of the following is the common cause of respiratory failure type 2 ?
Macular sparing is associated with lesions in:
Saddle nose deformity is seen in?
Post-tubercular bronchiectasis is most commonly seen with
Central bronchiectasis is seen with
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 41: What is the PRIMARY evidence-based intervention for preventing catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs)?
- A. Use of face mask during catheter insertion
- B. Prophylactic antibiotics are effective
- C. Early catheter removal when clinically appropriate
- D. Closed drainage technique to minimize bacterial entry (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Closed drainage technique to minimize bacterial entry*** - Maintaining a **closed drainage system** prevents the entry of bacteria into the urinary tract, which is a primary cause of CAUTIs. - This technique involves ensuring the connection between the catheter and the drainage bag remains sealed at all times, minimizing **environmental contamination**. *Prophylactic antibiotics are effective* - **Prophylactic antibiotics** are generally not recommended for routine CAUTI prevention due to concerns about **antibiotic resistance** and limited evidence of effectiveness [1]. - Their use is typically reserved for specific high-risk procedures or patient populations. *Use of face mask during catheter insertion* - While maintaining **asepsis** during catheter insertion is crucial, the use of a face mask specifically addresses **respiratory droplet transmission**, which is not the primary route of bacterial entry into the urinary system during catheterization. - **Sterile gloves** and a **sterile field** are more directly relevant for preventing contamination during insertion [1]. *Early catheter removal when clinically appropriate* - While **early catheter removal** is a critical strategy for CAUTI prevention by reducing dwell time, the question asks for the *primary* evidence-based intervention [1]. A **closed drainage system** directly addresses the mechanism of bacterial entry while the catheter is in place. - Reducing catheter duration minimizes risk, but the closed system ensures safety during the necessary period of catheterization.
Question 42: Buboes form is which stage of LGV?
- A. Secondary (Correct Answer)
- B. Tertiary
- C. Latent
- D. Primary
Explanation: ***Secondary*** - Buboes, which are swollen, painful lymph nodes, are a hallmark of the **secondary stage** of **Lymphogranuloma Venereum (LGV)** [1]. - This stage typically develops weeks after the initial infection, following the unnoticed or transient primary lesion. *Primary* - The primary stage of LGV is characterized by a **small, painless papule or ulcer** at the site of inoculation, which often goes unnoticed. - **Buboes are not formed** during this initial, often asymptomatic, phase. *Tertiary* - The tertiary stage of LGV involves **chronic inflammation** and **tissue destruction**, leading to complications like **genital elephantiasis**, rectal strictures, and fistulas. - While there is chronic lymphedema, the acute, painful buboes are characteristic of the secondary stage, not this late, destructive phase. *Latent* - The concept of a latent stage is not typically used to describe the progression of LGV in the same way as other infections like syphilis. - LGV progresses through distinct symptomatic primary, secondary, and potentially tertiary stages without a prolonged asymptomatic latency period between symptom presentations.
Question 43: ABO non- secretors are more prone to ?
- A. Increased risk of infections (Correct Answer)
- B. Autoimmune diseases
- C. Cardiovascular diseases
- D. Cancer
Explanation: Increased risk of infections - Non-secretors of ABO antigens exhibit an increased susceptibility to a variety of infections, particularly bacterial and viral pathogens. - This is thought to be due to the absence of ABO antigens in secretions, which typically act as decoy receptors to prevent pathogen adhesion to host cells. Autoimmune diseases - While some associations between ABO blood groups and autoimmune diseases exist, non-secretor status is not consistently linked to a higher overall risk of autoimmune conditions. Cardiovascular diseases - ABO blood groups have been associated with cardiovascular risk, with non-O blood types generally having a slightly higher risk of certain cardiovascular events. - However, secretor status (the ability to secrete ABO antigens into bodily fluids) itself is not a prominent independent risk factor for cardiovascular diseases. Cancer - There are some documented associations between specific ABO blood types and certain types of cancer (e.g., non-O blood types with pancreatic cancer), but this is distinct from secretor status. - Being an ABO non-secretor is not a primary, broadly recognized risk factor for developing cancer.
Question 44: What is the primary cause of Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVID)?
- A. Defective B cell function
- B. Absent B cells
- C. Reduced number of B cells
- D. Defective B cell differentiation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Defective B cell differentiation*** - CVID is characterized primarily by a failure of **B cells** to differentiate into **plasma cells**, which are responsible for producing antibodies [1]. - This defective differentiation leads to **hypogammaglobulinemia**, or low levels of immunoglobulins [1]. *Absent B cells* - Complete absence of B cells is characteristic of severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) or X-linked agammaglobulinemia (XLA), not CVID [1]. - In CVID, B cells are typically present, but they are dysfunctional. *Reduced number of B cells* - While some patients with CVID may have reduced B cell numbers, this is not the primary or defining defect. - The key issue is the inability of existing B cells to mature and produce antibodies effectively. *Defective B cell function* - While B cell function is indeed defective in CVID, the root cause of this malfunction is specifically the **failure of differentiation** into mature plasma cells. - The B cells are unable to perform their primary function of antibody production due to this arrest in their development.
Question 45: Which of the following statements regarding Pertussis is INCORRECT?
- A. The drug of choice is Erythromycin.
- B. Cerebellar ataxia is a known complication. (Correct Answer)
- C. Some infections may be subclinical.
- D. The most infective stage is the catarrhal stage.
Explanation: ***Cerebellar ataxia is a known complication.*** - **Cerebellar ataxia** is not a typical or known complication of pertussis. Complications usually involve the respiratory, neurological (e.g., seizures, encephalopathy due to hypoxia), and nutritional systems due to severe coughing. - While neurological complications can occur, **ataxia** specifically is not frequently sighted in the context of pertussis. *Some infections may be subclinical.* - Some individuals, especially those partially immunized or older, can experience **subclinical or atypical infections** with pertussis, often presenting as a mild cough. - This characteristic makes it difficult to control the spread of the disease as infected individuals may not be recognized. *The most infective stage is the catarrhal stage.* - The **catarrhal stage**, characterized by non-specific cold-like symptoms, is the most contagious phase because bacterial shedding is highest. - During this stage, symptoms are mild and often indistinguishable from a common cold, leading to widespread transmission before diagnosis. *The drug of choice is Erythromycin.* - **Erythromycin**, or other macrolides like azithromycin or clarithromycin, are the drugs of choice for treating pertussis. - These antibiotics are most effective when administered early in the **catarrhal stage** to reduce disease severity and prevent transmission.
Question 46: Which of the following is the common cause of respiratory failure type 2 ?
- A. Chronic bronchitis exacerbation (Correct Answer)
- B. Acute attack asthma
- C. ARDS
- D. Pneumonia
Explanation: ***Chronic bronchitis exacerbation*** - **Chronic bronchitis** is a common cause of **Type 2 respiratory failure**, characterized by **hypercapnia** (elevated CO2) due to impaired alveolar ventilation [1]. - An exacerbation worsens **airflow obstruction** and leads to increased work of breathing and CO2 retention [1]. *Acute attack asthma* - While severe asthma can cause respiratory failure, it typically presents initially as **Type 1 (hypoxemic)**, with severe bronchospasm and V/Q mismatch [2]. - **Hypercapnia** in asthma is a sign of **severe, impending respiratory collapse** rather than the primary cause of respiratory failure. *ARDS* - **Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)** is a classic cause of **Type 1 (hypoxemic) respiratory failure**, characterized by widespread inflammation and fluid accumulation in the lungs [2]. - ARDS primarily involves impaired oxygenation rather than CO2 elimination issues, unless it progresses to severe stages with significant muscle fatigue. *Pneumonia* - **Pneumonia** predominantly causes **Type 1 (hypoxemic) respiratory failure** due to consolidation and V/Q mismatch in affected lung areas, leading to impaired oxygen diffusion [2]. - While severe, widespread pneumonia can eventually lead to ventilatory failure, its initial and primary impact is on oxygenation.
Question 47: Macular sparing is associated with lesions in:
- A. Lesions in the optic nerve
- B. Lesions in the lateral geniculate body
- C. Lesions in the occipital cortex (Correct Answer)
- D. Lesions in the optic chiasma
Explanation: ***Lesions in the occipital cortex*** - **Macular sparing** occurs when the central visual field (macula) is preserved despite damage to the occipital cortex, often due to its dual blood supply from the **middle cerebral artery** and the **posterior cerebral artery**. [2] - This phenomenon typically results from a **vascular lesion** in the occipital lobe, leading to a **homonymous hemianopia** with a distinct sparing of the foveal region. [2], [3] *Lesions in the optic nerve* - Lesions in the optic nerve cause **monocular vision loss** or central scotomas, rather than the homonymous visual field defects associated with macular sparing. [2] - Damage here affects the visual pathway **before** the optic chiasm, impacting the entire visual input from one eye. [2] *Lesions in the lateral geniculate body* - Lesions in the **lateral geniculate body (LGB)** produce **contralateral homonymous hemianopia** or quadrantanopia, but typically **do not exhibit macular sparing** as consistently as cortical lesions. - The LGB processes visual information from both eyes before relaying it to the visual cortex. [1] *Lesions in the optic chiasma* - Lesions in the **optic chiasma** classically cause **bitemporal hemianopia**, affecting the temporal visual fields of both eyes. [2] - This type of visual field defect is distinct from the homonymous defects seen with macular sparing, as it results from damage to the **crossing nasal fibers**. [2]
Question 48: Saddle nose deformity is seen in?
- A. Primary Syphilis
- B. Secondary Syphilis
- C. Tertiary Syphilis (Correct Answer)
- D. Lupus Vulgaris
Explanation: ***Tertiary Syphilis*** - **Saddle nose deformity** is a characteristic late manifestation of **tertiary syphilis** due to destructive lesions (gummas) affecting the nasal cartilage and bone [1], [2]. - It results from the **collapse of the nasal bridge**, leading to a flattened appearance [2]. *Primary Syphilis* - Characterized by a **chancre**, a painless ulcer, usually at the site of infection [1]. - This stage does not involve destructive lesions of the nose. *Secondary Syphilis* - Presents with a **widespread rash**, lymphadenopathy, and mucous patches [1]. - While systemic, it typically does not cause structural damage like saddle nose deformity. *Lupus Vulgaris* - This is a **cutaneous form of tuberculosis**, characterized by chronic, destructive skin lesions. - While it can cause facial disfigurement, saddle nose deformity is not a typical feature of lupus vulgaris.
Question 49: Post-tubercular bronchiectasis is most commonly seen with
- A. Pertussis
- B. Cystic fibrosis
- C. Kartagener syndrome
- D. Tuberculosis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Tuberculosis*** - **Tuberculosis (TB)**, particularly childhood TB, is a leading cause of post-infectious bronchiectasis, especially in regions with high TB prevalence [1]. - The inflammatory and destructive processes associated with TB infection in the lungs can lead to irreversible dilation and damage of the bronchi [1]. *Pertussis* - While **pertussis** can cause severe respiratory inflammation and chronic cough, it is a less common cause of widespread, irreversible bronchiectasis compared to tuberculosis [1]. - The damage caused by pertussis is typically more acute and less likely to lead to long-term structural changes like those seen in post-tubercular bronchiectasis. *Cystic fibrosis* - **Cystic fibrosis** is a genetic disorder that causes thick, sticky mucus to build up in the lungs, leading to chronic infections and bronchiectasis [1]. - However, post-tubercular bronchiectasis refers specifically to bronchiectasis developing *after* a tuberculosis infection, not as a primary genetic condition. *Kartagener syndrome* - **Kartagener syndrome** is a genetic disorder characterized by defects in ciliary function, leading to impaired mucociliary clearance and recurrent respiratory infections, which can result in bronchiectasis [1]. - Similar to cystic fibrosis, this is a primary genetic cause of bronchiectasis, distinct from bronchiectasis occurring as a sequela of tuberculosis.
Question 50: Central bronchiectasis is seen with
- A. Cystic fibrosis (Correct Answer)
- B. Tuberculosis
- C. Bronchogenic carcinoma
- D. Cystic Adenomatoid Malformation (CAM)
Explanation: ***Cystic fibrosis*** - **Cystic Fibrosis (CF)** is a genetic disorder commonly associated with **central bronchiectasis**, particularly affecting the upper lobes and central airways. - The abnormal mucus production in CF leads to chronic infection, inflammation, and eventual **dilation of the bronchi**, prominent in the central regions. *Bronchogenic carcinoma* - **Bronchogenic carcinoma** can cause **post-obstructive bronchiectasis** distal to the tumor due to airway obstruction and reduced clearance. - However, the bronchiectasis tends to be **localized** to the segment supplied by the obstructed bronchus, rather than being diffusely central. *Tuberculosis* - **Tuberculosis (TB)** can lead to bronchiectasis, often affecting the **upper lobes** and causing localized airway damage. - While TB can cause changes in the bronchi, it is typically linked with **focal or segmental bronchiectasis** resulting from inflammatory destruction, not diffuse central bronchiectasis like CF. *Cystic Adenomatoid Malformation (CAM)* - **Cystic Adenomatoid Malformation (CAM)** is a **congenital lung lesion** with abnormal airway development, but it does not primarily involve bronchiectasis. - CAM is characterized by **cystic structures** or abnormal lung tissue, not the permanent dilation of the bronchi seen in typical bronchiectasis.