In a patient there is dyspnea in upright position which is relieved in supine position, Diagnosis ?
Clicking noise in Pneumomediastinum is known as
Which of the following is least likely to be associated with emphysema?
What is the most common cause of lung abscess in comatose patients?
Which of the following symptoms is least likely to be associated with hyponatremia?
A patient involved in an accident presents with unconsciousness. Upon physical examination, there is unilateral pupillary dilatation. What is the most likely cause of this finding?
What is the significance of the absence of Vi-antibody in a patient with typhoid fever?
Recrudescences are commonly seen in which type of malaria:
Which condition is not associated with complement deficiency?
What is the PRIMARY evidence-based intervention for preventing catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs)?
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 41: In a patient there is dyspnea in upright position which is relieved in supine position, Diagnosis ?
- A. Tachypnea
- B. Orthopnea
- C. Platypnea (Correct Answer)
- D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
Explanation: ***Platypnea*** - **Platypnea** is defined as **dyspnea that worsens in an upright position** and improves when lying down. - This condition is often associated with **hepatopulmonary syndrome**, **intracardiac shunts** (e.g., patent foramen ovale), or **pulmonary arteriovenous malformations**, where gravity affects blood flow and gas exchange. *Tachypnea* - **Tachypnea** refers to an **abnormally rapid rate of breathing**. - It describes the *rate* of respiration, not its variation with body position. *Orthopnea* - **Orthopnea** is **dyspnea that occurs when lying flat** and is relieved by sitting or standing up [1]. - It is often seen in conditions like **heart failure**, where fluid redistribution to the lungs is exacerbated in the supine position [2]. *Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea* - **Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)** is characterized by **sudden, severe shortness of breath at night** that awakens the person from sleep [2]. - It is typically caused by **left-sided heart failure** and is relieved by sitting upright or standing, which is the opposite of the described scenario.
Question 42: Clicking noise in Pneumomediastinum is known as
- A. Hamman's sign (Correct Answer)
- B. Traube's sign
- C. Kussmaul's sign
- D. None of the options
Explanation: Hamman's sign - Hamman's sign is a crunching, bubbling, or clicking sound synchronous with the heartbeat, audible on auscultation over the precordium. - It is pathognomonic for pneumomediastinum, caused by the heart beating against air-filled tissues. Traube's sign - Traube's sign refers to a pistol-shot sound heard over the femoral artery in severe aortic regurgitation [1]. - It is a vascular sign and not related to pneumomediastinum. Kussmaul's sign - Kussmaul's sign is a paradoxical rise in jugular venous pressure (JVP) during inspiration. - It is typically seen in conditions like constrictive pericarditis or right ventricular infarction, not pneumomediastinum. None of the options - This option is incorrect because Hamman's sign accurately describes the clicking noise associated with pneumomediastinum. - The other options refer to different clinical phenomena unrelated to pneumomediastinum.
Question 43: Which of the following is least likely to be associated with emphysema?
- A. Associated with smoking
- B. Type I respiratory failure (Correct Answer)
- C. Barrel shaped chest
- D. Cyanosis
Explanation: **Type I respiratory failure** - **Emphysema** primarily causes **Type II respiratory failure** (hypercapnic) due to impaired gas exchange and CO2 retention resulting from alveolar destruction and air trapping [2][4]. - While hypoxemia can occur in severe emphysema, it is the more prominent **hypercapnia** that defines its typical respiratory failure pattern, making pure Type I less likely [3][4]. *Associated with smoking* - **Cigarette smoking** is the leading cause of emphysema, directly linked to the destruction of alveolar walls and loss of elastic recoil [1]. - The inhaled toxins trigger an inflammatory response in the lungs, leading to the release of proteases that break down lung tissue [1][2]. *Barrel shaped chest* - This is a classic sign of advanced emphysema, caused by **chronic air trapping** and subsequent hyperinflation of the lungs [2]. - The diaphragm flattens, and the ribs become more horizontal, increasing the anterior-posterior diameter of the chest. *Cyanosis* - Often seen in patients with severe emphysema (especially in a subgroup referred to as "blue bloaters" for chronic bronchitis overlap) due to **significant hypoxemia** [3]. - Impaired gas exchange leads to insufficient oxygenation of hemoglobin, causing a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes [3].
Question 44: What is the most common cause of lung abscess in comatose patients?
- A. Staph aureus
- B. Oral anaerobes (Correct Answer)
- C. Klebsiella
- D. Tuberculosis
Explanation: Oral anaerobes - **Comatose patients** are at high risk for **aspiration** of oropharyngeal flora, which predominantly consists of anaerobic bacteria. [1] - Aspiration of these organisms, especially in compromised lung tissue, frequently leads to **necrotizing pneumonia** and subsequent abscess formation. [1] *Staph aureus* - While *Staphylococcus aureus* can cause lung abscesses, particularly in the context of **hematogenous spread** (e.g., endocarditis) or nosocomial infections, it is not the most common cause in *comatose patients* who typically aspirate oral flora. [2] - *S. aureus* lung abscesses are often associated with multiple, smaller lesions rather than a single, large abscess from aspiration. *Klebsiella* - *Klebsiella pneumoniae* can cause severe, **rapidly progressive pneumonia** that may lead to abscess formation, especially in individuals with **alcoholism** or **diabetes**. - However, it is less common than oral anaerobes as the primary cause of abscess in the general population of comatose patients, whose main risk factor is aspiration of normal oral flora. [1] *Tuberculosis* - **Mycobacterium tuberculosis** can cause cavitary lung lesions, but these are typically chronic and result from primary or reactivated tuberculosis disease, not acute aspiration. [3] - Lung abscesses caused by tuberculosis are histologically distinct from pyogenic abscesses and are characterized by **granulomatous inflammation** and caseous necrosis.
Question 45: Which of the following symptoms is least likely to be associated with hyponatremia?
- A. anorexia
- B. Drowsiness
- C. Convulsions
- D. Myalgia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: Myalgia - While muscle cramps can occur with electrolyte imbalances, generalized myalgia (muscle pain) is not a typical or primary symptom of hyponatremia. - Hyponatremia primarily affects neurological function due to osmotic shifts in the brain. anorexia - Anorexia (loss of appetite) is a common, non-specific symptom of many metabolic disturbances, including hyponatremia, and often accompanies nausea and vomiting. - It arises from the general malaise and gastrointestinal upset associated with the condition. Convulsions - Convulsions are a severe neurological symptom of acute and profound hyponatremia, resulting from cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure [1]. - This occurs when the brain swells due to the osmotic shift of water into brain cells. Drowsiness - Drowsiness is a frequent neurological manifestation of hyponatremia, indicative of altered mental status [1]. - It reflects impaired brain function due to the osmotic disturbances and potential cerebral edema [1].
Question 46: A patient involved in an accident presents with unconsciousness. Upon physical examination, there is unilateral pupillary dilatation. What is the most likely cause of this finding?
- A. Uncal herniation (Correct Answer)
- B. Tonsillar herniation
- C. Cingulate herniation
- D. Transcalvarial herniation
Explanation: ***Uncal herniation*** - **Uncal herniation** compresses the **ipsilateral oculomotor nerve (CN III)**, leading to **pupillary dilation** due to predominant parasympathetic fiber damage [1], [2]. - This condition occurs when the **medial temporal lobe (uncus)** is forced over the tentorial notch, often as a result of a **supratentorial mass effect** [2]. *Tonsillar herniation* - **Tonsillar herniation** is the downward displacement of the **cerebellar tonsils** through the **foramen magnum** [1], [2]. - This compression primarily affects the **brainstem** and **cardiorespiratory centers**, causing **respiratory arrest** or **cardiac dysfunction**, not direct pupillary dilation [1]. *Cingulate herniation* - **Cingulate herniation** involves the displacement of the **cingulate gyrus** under the **falx cerebri**. - While it can lead to **hydrocephalus** and **cognitive changes**, it does not directly cause **unilateral pupillary dilation**. *Transcalvarial herniation* - **Transcalvarial herniation** occurs when **brain tissue** extends through a **skull defect** (e.g., following a craniectomy or skull fracture). - This type of herniation is typically visible externally and does not inherently cause **unilateral pupillary dilation** through direct nerve compression.
Question 47: What is the significance of the absence of Vi-antibody in a patient with typhoid fever?
- A. Indicates a poor prognosis
- B. Indicates a favorable prognosis (Correct Answer)
- C. No impact on prognosis
- D. Suggests a negative response to treatment
Explanation: ***Indicates a favorable prognosis*** - The **Vi (Virulence) antigen** is a **polysaccharide capsule** that helps *Salmonella typhi* evade the immune system and is associated with **virulence** and **carrier state development**. - **Absence of Vi-antibody** indicates infection with a **less virulent strain**, successful **immune clearance**, and **lower likelihood** of developing a chronic carrier state. *Indicates a poor prognosis* - The **absence of Vi-antibody** is actually associated with **better outcomes**, not worse prognosis. - **Poor prognosis** in typhoid fever is typically related to complications like **intestinal perforation** or **septic shock**, not Vi-antibody status [1]. *No impact on prognosis* - **Vi-antibody status** is a **recognized prognostic marker** in typhoid fever and does have clinical significance. - The **presence of Vi-antibodies** may indicate **persistent infection** or **carrier state development**, making it a relevant prognostic indicator. *Suggests a negative response to treatment* - **Absence of Vi-antibody** typically indicates **successful treatment response** and **effective clearance** of the organism. - **Negative treatment response** would be evidenced by **persistent fever**, **positive cultures**, or **clinical deterioration** despite appropriate antibiotic therapy.
Question 48: Recrudescences are commonly seen in which type of malaria:
- A. P. vivax
- B. P. falciparum (Correct Answer)
- C. P. malariae
- D. P. ovale
Explanation: ***P. falciparum*** - **Recrudescence** refers to the reappearance of malaria symptoms after a period of remission, due to the survival and subsequent increase of asexual parasites in the blood [1]. - This is common in *P. falciparum* due to the high parasite burden and its ability to sequester in deep capillaries, evading splenic clearance and developing drug resistance. *P. vivax* - *P. vivax* is known for **relapses**, which are caused by the activation of dormant liver stages called **hypnozoites**, rather than a recrudescence of blood-stage parasites [1]. - Relapses can occur months or years after the initial infection, even after the blood-stage parasites have been cleared. *P. malariae* - *P. malariae* is uniquely characterized by infections that can persist for many years, even decades, causing symptoms of **recrudescence**, although less frequently than *P. falciparum* [1]. - It has a prolonged erythrocytic cycle, which can lead to chronic low-level parasitemia and sporadic symptomatic episodes. *P. ovale* - Similar to *P. vivax*, *P. ovale* also causes **relapses** due to the presence of **hypnozoites** in the liver [1]. - While it can manifest with symptoms similar to *P. vivax*, it is generally less common and causes milder disease.
Question 49: Which condition is not associated with complement deficiency?
- A. SLE
- B. PNH
- C. Membranous nephritis (Correct Answer)
- D. Hereditary angioedema
Explanation: Membranous nephritis - Membranous nephritis is associated with immune complex deposition rather than complement deficiencies. [1] - The disease is characterized by thickening of the glomerular basement membrane without significant complement involvement. [1] PNH - Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) is due to a defect in the GPI-anchor leading to complement-mediated hemolysis. - Complement activation plays a critical role in the destruction of red blood cells in this condition. Hereditary angioedema - Hereditary angioedema is caused by deficiencies in C1 inhibitor, leading to uncontrolled activation of complement. - This results in edema episodes, directly linked to complement pathway dysregulation. SLE - Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) involves complement consumption due to autoantibody formation against nuclear antigens. - The disease often presents with hypocomplementemia, indicating complement system involvement.
Question 50: What is the PRIMARY evidence-based intervention for preventing catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs)?
- A. Use of face mask during catheter insertion
- B. Prophylactic antibiotics are effective
- C. Early catheter removal when clinically appropriate
- D. Closed drainage technique to minimize bacterial entry (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Closed drainage technique to minimize bacterial entry*** - Maintaining a **closed drainage system** prevents the entry of bacteria into the urinary tract, which is a primary cause of CAUTIs. - This technique involves ensuring the connection between the catheter and the drainage bag remains sealed at all times, minimizing **environmental contamination**. *Prophylactic antibiotics are effective* - **Prophylactic antibiotics** are generally not recommended for routine CAUTI prevention due to concerns about **antibiotic resistance** and limited evidence of effectiveness [1]. - Their use is typically reserved for specific high-risk procedures or patient populations. *Use of face mask during catheter insertion* - While maintaining **asepsis** during catheter insertion is crucial, the use of a face mask specifically addresses **respiratory droplet transmission**, which is not the primary route of bacterial entry into the urinary system during catheterization. - **Sterile gloves** and a **sterile field** are more directly relevant for preventing contamination during insertion [1]. *Early catheter removal when clinically appropriate* - While **early catheter removal** is a critical strategy for CAUTI prevention by reducing dwell time, the question asks for the *primary* evidence-based intervention [1]. A **closed drainage system** directly addresses the mechanism of bacterial entry while the catheter is in place. - Reducing catheter duration minimizes risk, but the closed system ensures safety during the necessary period of catheterization.