In which condition is the Doll's Eye Reflex tested?
Major contribution to cachexia with advanced cancer?
Which type of artery is most commonly involved in PAN?
Which of the following is a cause of post-transplantation hypertension? I. Rejection II. Cyclosporine nephrotoxicity III. Renal transplant artery stenosis (RTAS) IV. Recurrent disease in the allograft. Select the correct option.
Which of the following statements is false regarding the declaration of brain stem death in a hospital?
In which condition is Serum Amyloid Associated (SAA) protein most commonly found?
In which non-neoplastic condition is CEA commonly elevated?
Diabetic foot is associated with following type of gangrene -
What is the mode of inheritance for the most common form of hypophosphatemic rickets?
Shrinking Lung Syndrome is seen in:
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 11: In which condition is the Doll's Eye Reflex tested?
- A. Hemiplegic
- B. Paraplegic
- C. Cerebral palsy
- D. Unconscious patients (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Unconscious patients*** - The **Doll's Eye Reflex**, also known as the **oculocephalic reflex**, is a brainstem reflex used to assess brainstem function in **comatose or unconscious patients** [1]. - It is positive if the eyes move in the opposite direction to the head turn, indicating intact brainstem pathways [1]. *Hemiplegic* - **Hemiplegia** refers to paralysis on one side of the body, often due to stroke or brain injury. - While it can be associated with altered consciousness, the Doll's Eye Reflex specifically tests brainstem integrity in unconscious states, not the motor deficits of hemiplegia itself. *Paraplegic* - **Paraplegia** is paralysis affecting the lower half of the body. - This condition primarily involves spinal cord damage and does not directly relate to the assessment of brainstem function using the Doll's Eye Reflex. *Cerebral palsy* - **Cerebral palsy** is a group of disorders affecting movement, muscle tone, or posture, caused by damage to the developing brain. - While individuals with cerebral palsy may have neurological impairments, the Doll's Eye Reflex is not a primary diagnostic or assessment tool for this chronic condition; it is used acutely in unconscious states.
Question 12: Major contribution to cachexia with advanced cancer?
- A. Tumor-necrosis-factor (TNF) (Correct Answer)
- B. Histamine
- C. Interferon
- D. Clathrin
Explanation: ***Tumor-necrosis-factor (TNF)*** - **Tumor necrosis factor (TNF-α)** is a prominent cytokine involved in the pathogenesis of cancer cachexia, leading to muscle wasting and weight loss [1]. - It induces inflammation, increases **catabolism**, and reduces anabolism, contributing significantly to the metabolic dysfunction seen in cancer patients [1]. *Histamine* - **Histamine** is primarily known for its role in allergic reactions and inflammatory responses, but it is not a major direct driver of cachexia. - While it can be released in various inflammatory conditions, its direct contribution to the severe muscle wasting and metabolic changes of cachexia is limited compared to other cytokines. *Interferon* - **Interferons (IFNs)** are cytokines typically associated with antiviral responses and immune modulation, which can have diverse effects on metabolism. - While some interferons can indirectly contribute to systemic inflammation and fatigue, they are not considered a primary or major direct mediator of muscle catabolism and fat loss characteristic of cancer cachexia. *Clathrin* - **Clathrin** is a protein involved in the formation of clathrin-coated vesicles, essential for **endocytosis** and intracellular trafficking. - It has no direct role in the systemic metabolic dysregulation or muscle wasting associated with cancer cachexia.
Question 13: Which type of artery is most commonly involved in PAN?
- A. Muscular (Correct Answer)
- B. Capillaries
- C. Elastic
- D. Arterioles
Explanation: ***Muscular*** - **Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)** predominantly affects **medium to small-sized muscular arteries**, leading to inflammation, necrosis, and microaneurysms [1]. - This involvement often causes **organ ischemia** and symptoms related to the affected organs, such as the kidneys, gastrointestinal tract, and skin [1]. *Elastic* - **Elastic arteries**, such as the aorta and its major branches, are typically spared in PAN due to their larger size and distinct histological structure. - Diseases like **Takayasu arteritis** or **Giant cell arteritis** are more commonly associated with vasculitis affecting large elastic arteries. *Arterioles* - While arterioles can be affected in various forms of vasculitis, they are not the primary target in classic PAN. - Involvement of arterioles is more characteristic of **microscopic polyangiitis** or **Churg-Strauss syndrome** [2]. *Capillaries* - **Capillaries** are the smallest blood vessels, and their involvement is rare in PAN. - Conditions like **Henoch-Schönlein purpura** or some drug-induced vasculitides more typically affect capillaries, often resulting in palpable purpura [2].
Question 14: Which of the following is a cause of post-transplantation hypertension? I. Rejection II. Cyclosporine nephrotoxicity III. Renal transplant artery stenosis (RTAS) IV. Recurrent disease in the allograft. Select the correct option.
- A. None of the above are correct causes.
- B. I, II, and IV are correct causes.
- C. I and III are correct causes.
- D. All of the options are correct causes of post-transplantation hypertension. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***All of the options are correct causes of post-transplantation hypertension.*** - Post-transplantation hypertension often has a multifactorial etiology, with **rejection**, **cyclosporine nephrotoxicity**, **renal transplant artery stenosis (RTAS)**, and **recurrent disease in the allograft** all being significant contributors. - Each of these conditions can lead to mechanisms that elevate blood pressure, such as **renal ischemia**, activation of the **renin-angiotensin system**, and inflammatory responses affecting renal function. *I, II, and IV are correct causes.* - This option is incorrect because it excludes **renal transplant artery stenosis (RTAS)** (III), which is a well-established cause of secondary hypertension in transplant recipients due to reduced blood flow to the allograft. - **RTAS** activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), leading to **vasoconstriction** and **sodium retention**, contributing to hypertension. *I and III are correct causes.* - This option is incorrect as it omits other crucial causes like **cyclosporine nephrotoxicity** (II) and **recurrent disease in the allograft** (IV), both of which are documented contributors to post-transplantation hypertension. - **Cyclosporine nephrotoxicity** causes afferent arteriolar vasoconstriction and glomerulosclerosis, directly increasing blood pressure. *None of the above are correct causes.* - This option is incorrect because **rejection**, **cyclosporine nephrotoxicity**, **renal transplant artery stenosis (RTAS)**, and **recurrent disease in the allograft** are all recognized and significant causes of post-transplantation hypertension. - Each condition has distinct pathological mechanisms that contribute to **elevated blood pressure** in transplant recipients.
Question 15: Which of the following statements is false regarding the declaration of brain stem death in a hospital?
- A. Presence of neurologist is not required
- B. Drug overdose should be ruled out
- C. All of the above (Correct Answer)
- D. Patient must be in coma
Explanation: ***All of the above*** - This option indicates that all the preceding statements are false. Let's analyze why each individual statement is indeed false in the context of brain stem death declaration [1]. - This implies there is a misunderstanding regarding each aspect of brain stem death criteria, which often requires specific conditions like a neurologist's involvement (though not always strictly mandatory in all protocols), ruling out drug overdose, and the patient being in a coma. *Presence of neurologist is not required* - This statement is false because while it's not universally mandated that a neurologist be one of the two certifying doctors, one of them must be a **senior physician (consultant)** and both must be experienced in brain stem death diagnosis. - In many settings, especially for complex cases or where local protocols specify, a neurologist or neurosurgeon's involvement is highly recommended or required to confirm brain stem death. *Drug overdose should be ruled out* - This statement is false because the absence of drugs that could **mimic brain stem death (e.g., sedatives, muscle relaxants)** is a crucial precondition for testing [3]. - It is essential to ensure that the patient's neurological state is not confounded by reversible causes like drug intoxication before proceeding with brain stem death tests [3]. *Patient must be in coma* - This statement is false because while a patient declared brain stem dead will indeed be in a coma, the criteria for **brain stem death** specifically focus on the irreversible cessation of brainstem function [1], not merely a comatose state [2]. - A coma is a precondition for assessing brain stem death, but the declaration itself requires specific tests demonstrating the absence of **brainstem reflexes** [4] and **apnea** [3], confirming the permanent loss of brainstem activity.
Question 16: In which condition is Serum Amyloid Associated (SAA) protein most commonly found?
- A. Alzheimer's disease
- B. Malignant hypertension
- C. Chronic inflammatory states (Correct Answer)
- D. Chronic renal failure
- E. Acute myocardial infarction
Explanation: ***Chronic inflammatory states*** [1][2] - Serum amyloid-associated protein is elevated in response to **chronic inflammation**, such as in rheumatic diseases and infections [1][2]. - It serves as a **biomarker** indicating systemic inflammation and is part of the **acute-phase response** [1]. *Chronic renal failure* - While renal failure can lead to amyloidosis, it is not a direct cause of serum amyloid-associated protein elevation. - **Renal impairment** is more associated with a decrease in clearance rather than production of amyloid proteins. *Alzheimer's disease* - Although amyloid plaques are a hallmark of Alzheimer's, they are related to **A-beta peptide**, not serum amyloid-associated protein. - Alzheimer's pathology primarily involves **neurodegeneration** rather than inflammatory response. *Malignant hypertension* - Malignant hypertension primarily affects the **vascular system** and does not directly involve the production of serum amyloid-associated protein. - It is characterized by end-organ damage, rather than a state of chronic inflammation. *Chronic inflammatory conditions like RA, TB & leprosy, osteomyelitis, ankylosing spondylitis, IBD, bronchiectasis, some tumors* [1][2] - While these conditions can be associated with systemic inflammation, they are too specific and do not comprehensively encompass the broader concept of **chronic inflammatory states**. - This option fails to highlight that serum amyloid-associated protein is a marker for **various chronic inflammatory states** beyond just those listed [1].
Question 17: In which non-neoplastic condition is CEA commonly elevated?
- A. Pancreatitis
- B. Inflammatory bowel disease (Correct Answer)
- C. Hemolytic anemia
- D. Liver disease
Explanation: ***Inflammatory bowel disease*** - **Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)** levels can be elevated in conditions involving active inflammation and rapid cell turnover within the gastrointestinal tract, such as **inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)** [1]. - While CEA is primarily a tumor marker, its elevation in IBD reflects the extensive mucosal inflammation and repair processes, rather than malignancy. *Hemolytic anemia* - **Hemolytic anemia** involves the destruction of red blood cells and does not typically lead to elevated CEA levels. - Elevated CEA is associated with certain epithelial conditions, not primary hematologic disorders. *Pancreatitis* - While **pancreatitis** can cause elevated levels of other markers like amylase and lipase, it is not consistently associated with elevated CEA. - CEA elevation in pancreatic conditions usually points towards a **pancreatic malignancy**. *Liver disease* - **Liver disease**, particularly severe inflammation or cirrhosis, can sometimes cause a mild elevation in CEA due to impaired clearance or increased production in damaged tissue. - However, levels are typically not as high or consistently elevated as in IBD, and significant elevation often prompts investigation for **primary hepatic or metastatic malignancy**.
Question 18: Diabetic foot is associated with following type of gangrene -
- A. Dry gangrene
- B. Wet gangrene (Correct Answer)
- C. Gas gangrene
- D. Fournier's gangrene
Explanation: ***Wet gangrene*** - Diabetic foot commonly leads to **ischemia** and **infection** [1], resulting in wet gangrene characterized by moist, necrotic tissue. - This type of gangrene is associated with **rapid progression** and can result in systemic toxicity, making prompt treatment essential. *Fournier's gangrene* - This type of gangrene specifically affects the **perineal** region and is not directly associated with diabetic foot. - It usually arises from infections related to **perineal trauma** or surgical procedures. *Gas gangrene* - Caused by **Clostridium** species and typically follows a traumatic injury or surgical procedure, not specifically related to diabetes. - Presents with **crepitus** and rapid systemic symptoms, different from the chronic nature of diabetic ulcers. *Dry gangrene* - Associated with **chronic ischemia** and necrosis, it occurs in conditions like peripheral arterial disease, not primarily with infections seen in diabetic foot [1]. - It usually develops gradually without the sudden onset of symptoms characteristic of wet gangrene.
Question 19: What is the mode of inheritance for the most common form of hypophosphatemic rickets?
- A. Autosomal Recessive (AR)
- B. Autosomal Dominant (AD)
- C. X-Linked Recessive (XR)
- D. X-Linked Dominant (XD) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***X-Linked Dominant (XD)*** - The most common form of hypophosphatemic rickets is **X-linked hypophosphatemic rickets (XLH)**, which is inherited in an X-linked dominant pattern. - This condition is caused by mutations in the **PHEX gene** on the X chromosome, leading to impaired phosphate reabsorption in the kidneys. *Autosomal Recessive (AR)* - While some rare forms of hypophosphatemic rickets exist with **autosomal recessive** inheritance, they are not the most common. - These forms typically involve mutations in genes affecting phosphate transport or vitamin D metabolism, distinct from the primary defect in XLH. *Autosomal Dominant (AD)* - There are also rare **autosomal dominant** forms of hypophosphatemic rickets, such as hereditary hypophosphatemic rickets with hypercalciuria (HHRH) or autosomal dominant hypophosphatemic rickets (ADHR). - However, these are less common than the X-linked dominant form (XLH). *X-Linked Recessive (XR)* - **X-linked recessive** inheritance typically affects males more severely and exclusively, with carrier females usually unaffected or mildly affected. - In X-linked dominant conditions like XLH, both males and females are affected, though females may exhibit variable expressivity.
Question 20: Shrinking Lung Syndrome is seen in:
- A. SLE (Correct Answer)
- B. Rheumatoid Arthritis
- C. Scleroderma
- D. Sarcoidosis
Explanation: ***SLE*** - **Shrinking lung syndrome (SLS)** is a rare but recognized pulmonary manifestation of **systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)** [1]. - It is characterized by **dyspnea**, **pleuritic chest pain**, and elevated diaphragms with reduced lung volumes, often without significant interstitial lung disease [1]. *Rheumatoid Arthritis* - While **rheumatoid arthritis** can cause various lung manifestations like **interstitial lung disease (ILD)**, pleural effusions, and rheumatoid nodules, **shrinking lung syndrome** is not typically associated with it [2]. - Lung disease in RA often involves **pulmonary fibrosis** or bronchiolitis, differing from the restrictive physiology of SLS. *Scleroderma* - **Scleroderma (Systemic Sclerosis)** commonly affects the lungs, primarily leading to **interstitial lung disease (ILD)** and **pulmonary hypertension** [1]. - **Shrinking lung syndrome**, with its characteristic restrictive pattern and elevated diaphragms, is not a typical presentation of lung involvement in scleroderma. *Sarcoidosis* - **Sarcoidosis** is characterized by the formation of **non-caseating granulomas**, primarily affecting the lungs and lymph nodes. - Lung involvement in sarcoidosis typically presents as **interstitial lung disease** or nodular infiltrates, not the distinct features of **shrinking lung syndrome** [3].