Classic triad in Renal cell carcinoma includes all of the following, Except:
All of the following are paraneoplastic syndromes for renal cell carcinoma except which of the following?
Pseudoclaudication is caused by
Hutchinson's Triad is specifically associated with which type of syphilis?
Which of the following is NOT part of the classic triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus?
Which of the following is used to decrease the duration and severity of acute diarrhea?
Reduced osmolarity ORS does not contain which of the following ions?
Therapeutic phlebotomy is not done in which of the following conditions?
Tinel's sign is seen in which of the following conditions?
Which of the following is NOT typically associated with Kallmann's syndrome?
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 131: Classic triad in Renal cell carcinoma includes all of the following, Except:
- A. Hematuria
- B. Hypertension (Correct Answer)
- C. Flank mass
- D. Abdominal Pain
Explanation: ***Hypertension*** - While hypertension can occur in patients with renal cell carcinoma due to **renin secretion** or other mechanisms, it is **not considered one of the classic triad symptoms**. - The classic triad represents symptoms that historically led to diagnosis, though most RCCs are now discovered incidentally. *Hematuria* - **Gross or microscopic hematuria** is a common symptom of renal cell carcinoma [1], resulting from tumor invasion into the collecting system. - It is one of the **three classic symptoms** associated with advanced disease. *Flank mass* - A palpable **flank mass** indicates a sizable tumor infiltrating the renal parenchyma and is a classic sign of renal cell carcinoma [1]. - This symptom is often associated with later-stage disease. *Abdominal Pain* - **Flank pain** or abdominal pain is a frequent symptom of renal cell carcinoma, which may be caused by tumor growth, hemorrhage, or obstruction. - This symptom, along with hematuria and a flank mass, constitutes the **classic diagnostic triad**.
Question 132: All of the following are paraneoplastic syndromes for renal cell carcinoma except which of the following?
- A. Fever
- B. Amyloidosis
- C. Anaemia
- D. Acanthosis Nigricans (Correct Answer)
Explanation: Acanthosis Nigricans - Acanthosis nigricans is primarily associated with **insulin resistance** and is not a known paraneoplastic syndrome related to renal cell carcinoma. - Paraneoplastic syndromes typically involve **systemic effects** of tumors rather than dermatological manifestations like acanthosis nigricans. *Fever* - Fever can occur as a result of the body's response to tumors, including renal cell carcinoma, and is classified as a **paraneoplastic syndrome**. - It reflects the **systemic inflammatory response** often seen with malignancies. *Anaemia* - Anaemia is a common paraneoplastic syndrome associated with renal cell carcinoma due to the production of **erythropoietin** or as a result of **chronic disease** [1]. - It can lead to **fatigue** and pallor in affected individuals, making it relevant to renal cancers [1]. *Amyloidosis* - Amyloidosis can occur as a paraneoplastic syndrome in various malignancies, including renal cell carcinoma, due to **protein misfolding** states. - It can lead to complications affecting **kidney function** and other organs, aligning it with renal cell carcinoma, though kidney tumors also frequently present with hypercalcemia [1].
Question 133: Pseudoclaudication is caused by
- A. Femoral Artery stenosis
- B. Popliteal Artery stenosis
- C. Lumbar canal stenosis (Correct Answer)
- D. Radial Artery stenosis
Explanation: ***Lumbar canal stenosis*** - **Pseudoclaudication**, also known as **neurogenic claudication**, is a characteristic symptom of **lumbar canal stenosis**. - It is caused by **compression of spinal nerve roots** in the lumbar spine, leading to pain, numbness, or weakness in the legs, often exacerbated by standing or walking and relieved by sitting or stooping forward [1]. *Femoral Artery stenosis* - **Femoral artery stenosis** causes **vascular claudication**, which is pain in the leg muscles due to insufficient blood flow during exercise [2]. - Unlike pseudoclaudication, vascular claudication is typically relieved by rest and is not influenced by spinal position [2]. *Popliteal Artery stenosis* - **Popliteal artery stenosis** also leads to **vascular claudication**, presenting as calf pain during walking due to reduced blood supply to the distal leg [2]. - This condition is related to **peripheral artery disease**, distinct from neurological compression [2]. *Radial Artery stenosis* - **Radial artery stenosis** typically affects blood flow to the **hand and forearm**, potentially causing symptoms of ischemia in those areas. - It is not associated with leg pain or claudication.
Question 134: Hutchinson's Triad is specifically associated with which type of syphilis?
- A. Tertiary syphilis
- B. Primary syphilis
- C. Congenital Syphilis (Correct Answer)
- D. Secondary Syphilis
Explanation: ***Congenital Syphilis*** - **Hutchinson's Triad** is a classic constellation of symptoms specific to **congenital syphilis**, reflecting the long-term effects of *in utero* infection [1]. - The triad includes **Hutchinson's teeth** (notched incisors), **interstitial keratitis** (corneal inflammation), and **sensorineural hearing loss**. *Tertiary syphilis* - This stage is characterized by **gummas**, **cardiovascular syphilis** (e.g., aortitis), and **neurosyphilis**, but not Hutchinson's triad [1]. - These manifestations develop years after initial infection in adults. *Primary syphilis* - The primary stage is marked by the appearance of a **painless chancre** at the site of infection [1]. - It does not involve the systemic, long-term complications seen in congenital syphilis. *Secondary Syphilis* - This stage typically presents with a **diffuse maculopapular rash**, **lymphadenopathy**, and sometimes **condylomata lata** [1]. - These are acute systemic symptoms, distinct from the developmental abnormalities of Hutchinson's triad.
Question 135: Which of the following is NOT part of the classic triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus?
- A. Dementia
- B. Gait disturbance
- C. Urinary incontinence
- D. Headache (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Headache*** - Headache is **not a typical symptom** of normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) and is generally absent, differentiating NPH from other forms of hydrocephalus. - While headaches can occur in other brain conditions, they are **not part of the classic diagnostic triad** for NPH. *Dementia* - **Cognitive impairment**, often manifesting as **subcortical dementia** with executive dysfunction and memory problems, is a core feature of NPH [1]. - This symptom typically progresses and can be a significant cause of disability in affected individuals. *Gait disturbance* - An **ataxic gait** or "magnetic gait" (difficulty lifting feet off the floor) is often the **earliest and most prominent symptom** in NPH. - It significantly impacts mobility and balance, contributing to falls. *Urinary incontinence* - **Urinary urgency and incontinence**, often appearing later than gait disturbance but earlier than dementia, is the third component of the classic triad [1]. - This symptom results from the pressure effects on the **sacral micturition centers** [1].
Question 136: Which of the following is used to decrease the duration and severity of acute diarrhea?
- A. Zn (Correct Answer)
- B. Mg
- C. Fe
- D. Ca
Explanation: ***Zn*** - **Zinc supplementation** has been shown to reduce the **duration** and **severity** of acute diarrhea, particularly in children in developing countries [1]. - It plays a crucial role in **immune function** and **intestinal integrity**, which helps in recovery from diarrheal episodes [1]. *Mg* - **Magnesium** is an essential mineral, but it is not directly used to decrease the duration or severity of acute diarrhea. - In fact, high doses of magnesium can act as a **laxative** and may worsen diarrhea. *Fe* - **Iron** is vital for red blood cell formation and oxygen transport, but it does not directly impact the duration or severity of acute diarrhea. - Iron supplementation is primarily used to treat **anemia**. *Ca* - **Calcium** is important for bone health and various metabolic processes, but it is not a primary intervention for reducing the duration or severity of acute diarrhea. - While sometimes used for mild digestive issues, it does not have the same evidence base as zinc for acute diarrhea.
Question 137: Reduced osmolarity ORS does not contain which of the following ions?
- A. Sodium
- B. Potassium
- C. Lactate (Correct Answer)
- D. Citrate
Explanation: ***Lactate*** - The **reduced osmolarity ORS** formulation replaced **bicarbonate** with **citrate** and does not contain lactate. - **Citrate** is preferred over lactate / bicarbonate due to its stability, longer shelf life, and ease of dissolution. *Sodium* - **Sodium** is a crucial component of ORS, as it is co-transported with glucose into enterocytes, facilitating water absorption through **solvent drag**. - Reduced osmolarity ORS has a **lower sodium concentration** (75 mEq/L) compared to standard ORS (90 mEq/L) to minimize hypernatremia risk and enhance water absorption. *Potassium* - **Potassium** is included in ORS to replace intestinal losses, as **diarrhea** leads to significant potassium depletion. - Maintaining adequate **potassium levels** is essential for normal cellular function and preventing hypokalemia-related complications. *Citrate* - **Citrate** is a component of ORS that serves as an **alkalinizing agent** to correct metabolic acidosis often associated with dehydration in diarrheal diseases. - It also enhances the absorption of sodium and water in the intestine.
Question 138: Therapeutic phlebotomy is not done in which of the following conditions?
- A. CML (Correct Answer)
- B. Polycythemia vera
- C. Hemochromatosis
- D. Porphyria cutanea tarda
Explanation: CML - **Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)** is typically treated with targeted therapies like **Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors** (e.g., Imatinib), not phlebotomy [1]. - Therapeutic phlebotomy is ineffective in managing the **hypercellularity** or symptoms associated with this condition compared to other conditions [1]. *Polycythemia vera* - Therapeutic phlebotomy is a key treatment in **Polycythemia vera** to reduce **hyperviscosity** symptoms. - This condition features increased red blood cell mass, which is directly addressed by phlebotomy. *Hemochromatosis* - In **Hemochromatosis**, phlebotomy is employed to lower **iron overload** by removing excess iron from the body. - This reduces the risk of complications such as **liver cirrhosis** and **diabetes** associated with iron excess. *Porphyria cutanea tarda* - Therapeutic phlebotomy is sometimes used in cases of **Porphyria cutanea tarda** to manage iron levels as a potential precipitating factor [2]. - It helps alleviate symptoms and prevent complications associated with **photosensitivity** and skin lesions [2].
Question 139: Tinel's sign is seen in which of the following conditions?
- A. Carpal tunnel syndrome (Correct Answer)
- B. Avascular necrosis of scaphoid
- C. Kienbock's Disease
- D. 1st carpometacarpal joint arthritis
Explanation: ***Carpal tunnel syndrome*** - **Tinel's sign** is elicited by lightly tapping over the median nerve at the wrist, which in carpal tunnel syndrome, reproduces tingling or pain in the median nerve distribution [1]. - This sign indicates **nerve compression** or irritation at the carpal tunnel, a hallmark of the condition [1]. *Avascular necrosis of scaphoid* - This condition involves **bone death** due to interrupted blood supply, leading to pain and reduced range of motion, but not nerve irritation. - Diagnosis is typically made with **imaging studies** like MRI, not by neurological signs like Tinel's. *Kienbock's Disease* - This is a form of **avascular necrosis of the lunate bone**, causing wrist pain and stiffness. - It does not involve nerve compression and therefore **Tinel's sign** would not be expected. *1st carpometacarpal joint arthritis* - This condition affects the **joint at the base of the thumb**, causing localized pain and stiffness during gripping or pinching. - Symptoms are related to **joint degeneration**, not nerve impingement, so Tinel's sign is not relevant.
Question 140: Which of the following is NOT typically associated with Kallmann's syndrome?
- A. Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
- B. Anosmia
- C. Amenorrhea
- D. Excess stimulation of the HPO axis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Excess stimulation of the HPO axis*** - Kallmann's syndrome is characterized by **hypogonadotropic hypogonadism**, meaning there is a deficiency in the secretion of **gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)** [1] from the hypothalamus. - This deficiency leads to *reduced* stimulation of the **hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian (HPO)** axis, not excess stimulation. *Amenorrhea* - **Amenorrhea** (absence of menstruation) is a common presentation in females with Kallmann's syndrome due to the **hypogonadotropic hypogonadism**. - The lack of GnRH results in insufficient **follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)** and **luteinizing hormone (LH)**, preventing ovarian function and regular menstrual cycles. *Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism* - This is a **defining feature** of Kallmann's syndrome, where the **hypothalamus fails to produce enough GnRH**, leading to low levels of FSH and LH from the pituitary. - The low gonadotropin levels subsequently cause the gonads (testes or ovaries) to produce insufficient sex hormones, resulting in **delayed or absent puberty** [1]. *Anosmia* - **Anosmia** (the inability to smell) is a classic and diagnostic feature of Kallmann's syndrome, distinguishing it from other forms of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. - It occurs because the **GnRH-producing neurons** originate in the olfactory placode and fail to migrate correctly into the hypothalamus during embryonic development, disrupting both smell and GnRH secretion.