Most common route of nosocomial infection [Hospital-acquired infection]?
Behavioral surveillance survey is done in?
Drug of choice for mass therapy under filariasis control programme?
Which of the following larvicide is used under urban Malaria Scheme?
Most common cause of goiter in India is
Japanese encephalitis vaccine in routine schedule is given in how many doses -
According to PCPNDT Act, 1994, what is the punishment for a doctor found guilty of sex determination for the first offense?
Group of 4-8 experts talking in front of a large group of audience is known as:
Infective period of chicken pox is
Disinfection of urine is which type of disinfection ?
NEET-PG 2015 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 71: Most common route of nosocomial infection [Hospital-acquired infection]?
- A. Droplet transmission
- B. Direct contact (Correct Answer)
- C. Indirect contact
- D. Vehicle transmission
Explanation: **Direct contact** - **Direct contact** with colonized or infected patients is the predominant mode of transmission for many common nosocomial pathogens like **MRSA** and **VRE**. - This often involves healthcare workers' hands becoming contaminated and then touching other patients. *Droplet transmission* - Involves the transmission of infectious agents through **respiratory droplets** produced during coughing, sneezing, or talking. - While significant for some infections (e.g., influenza, pertussis), it is not the most common route overall for nosocomial infections. *Indirect contact* - Occurs when an infectious agent is transferred via a **contaminated intermediate object** or person. - Although important (e.g., contaminated medical devices), it is generally less frequent than direct patient-to-patient transmission. *Vehicle transmission* - Involves transmission through **contaminated inanimate vehicles** like food, water, medications, or surgical instruments. - While outbreaks can occur via this route (e.g., contaminated endoscopes), it is not the most common day-to-day transmission mechanism in hospitals.
Question 72: Behavioral surveillance survey is done in?
- A. AIDS (Correct Answer)
- B. TB
- C. Filaria
- D. Malaria
Explanation: ***AIDS*** - Behavioral surveillance surveys are crucial for understanding and monitoring behaviors related to **HIV transmission**, such as sexual practices and drug use, among at-risk populations. - These surveys help in designing and evaluating **prevention programs** by identifying trends in risky behaviors and knowledge, attitudes, and practices (KAP) concerning HIV. *Filaria* - Surveillance for filaria primarily involves **entomological surveys** (mosquito monitoring) and **parasitological surveys** (blood examinations for microfilariae). - Behavioral aspects are less central to direct surveillance compared to disease vectors and infection rates. *TB* - Tuberculosis surveillance mainly focuses on **case detection**, **treatment outcomes**, and monitoring **drug resistance** through clinical and laboratory data. - While patient adherence to treatment involves behavior, there isn't a dedicated "behavioral surveillance survey" method specifically for TB. *Malaria* - Malaria surveillance involves monitoring **parasitemia rates**, **vector populations**, and **antimalarial drug resistance**. - Behavioral components like bed net usage are important, but the primary surveillance methods are not termed "behavioral surveillance surveys" in the same structured way as for HIV.
Question 73: Drug of choice for mass therapy under filariasis control programme?
- A. Albendazole
- B. Ivermectin
- C. DEC (Correct Answer)
- D. Mebendazole
Explanation: ***Correct: DEC*** - **Diethylcarbamazine (DEC)** is the drug of choice for **mass drug administration (MDA)** campaigns aimed at eliminating lymphatic filariasis. - It effectively kills **microfilariae** and has some action on adult worms, reducing transmission. - In India's National Filariasis Elimination Programme, DEC is administered along with Albendazole in annual MDA campaigns. *Incorrect: Albendazole* - While **Albendazole** is co-administered with DEC in MDA programs, it is not the sole drug of choice for mass treatment of filariasis. - Its primary role is to provide **macrofilaricidal** activity (killing adult worms) and co-treatment for other helminth infections. - It enhances the effect of DEC but is not used alone. *Incorrect: Ivermectin* - **Ivermectin** is used in MDA programs for filariasis, particularly in areas co-endemic with **onchocerciasis** or where **Loa loa** is prevalent (as DEC is contraindicated in these areas). - However, in India and most lymphatic filariasis endemic areas, **DEC** remains the primary drug. *Incorrect: Mebendazole* - **Mebendazole** is an anthelminthic primarily used for treating **intestinal nematode infections** like ascariasis, trichuriasis, and hookworm. - It is **not used** in lymphatic filariasis mass treatment programs.
Question 74: Which of the following larvicide is used under urban Malaria Scheme?
- A. Malathion
- B. Parathion
- C. DDT
- D. Abate (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Abate*** - **Abate (temephos)** is an organophosphate larvicide widely used in public health programs, including the urban malaria scheme, due to its effectiveness against mosquito larvae at low concentrations. - It is applied to water storage containers, wells, and other mosquito breeding sites to **prevent the development of adult mosquitoes**. *Malathion* - **Malathion** is an organophosphate insecticide primarily used as an **adulticide** for fogging operations against adult mosquitoes, not specifically as a larvicide in urban schemes. - While it can kill larvae, its primary application and efficacy are geared towards **adult mosquito control**. *Parathion* - **Parathion** is a highly toxic organophosphate insecticide that is generally **not used in public health programs** due to its significant environmental and human health risks. - Its use is largely restricted to agricultural pest control and is **not a recommended larvicide** for urban settings. *DDT* - **DDT (dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane)** is a persistent organic pollutant whose use has been largely banned or severely restricted globally due to its **environmental impact** and long-term toxicity. - While historically used for mosquito control (both larvae and adults), it is **not used in current urban malaria schemes** due to its banned status in many regions and resistance issues.
Question 75: Most common cause of goiter in India is
- A. Diffuse Endemic Goitre (Correct Answer)
- B. Papillary Carcinoma
- C. Toxic Multinodular Goitre
- D. Hashimoto's Thyroiditis
Explanation: ***Diffuse Endemic Goitre*** - **Iodine deficiency** is the leading cause of goiter globally, particularly in areas with poor iodine intake like some regions in India, leading to **diffuse endemic goiter** - In response to low iodine, the thyroid gland undergoes **hypertrophy** and **hyperplasia**, increasing in size in an attempt to capture more iodine for thyroid hormone synthesis - Despite the **Universal Salt Iodization (USI) program**, iodine deficiency disorders remain a significant public health concern in several Indian states *Papillary Carcinoma* - While it can cause a thyroid mass, **papillary carcinoma** is a malignant neoplastic condition, not the most common cause of generalized goiter - It presents as a **solitary or dominant nodule** and is not typically associated with widespread iodine deficiency - Accounts for only a small percentage of thyroid enlargements *Toxic Multinodular Goitre* - This condition involves multiple autonomously functioning nodules and primarily causes **hyperthyroidism**, not just goiter as a primary common presentation - More common in **elderly patients** and in regions with prior iodine deficiency (Jod-Basedow phenomenon) - Does not represent the most widespread cause of goiter in the general population of India *Hashimoto's Thyroiditis* - Hashimoto's is an **autoimmune disease** causing chronic lymphocytic thyroid inflammation and often hypothyroidism - While it can cause goiter, it typically produces a **firmer, less diffuse enlargement** than that seen with **iodine deficiency** - Not the most common cause of goiter in India, though its prevalence is increasing in urban areas
Question 76: Japanese encephalitis vaccine in routine schedule is given in how many doses -
- A. Two doses (at 9-12 months and 15-18 months) (Correct Answer)
- B. Single dose vaccine
- C. Three doses 1 month apart followed by a booster if needed
- D. Three doses with the second dose 1 month and 3rd dose 6 months after the first dose
Explanation: ***Two doses (at 9-12 months and 15-18 months)*** - The **routine JE vaccination schedule in India** as per NTAGI and IAP recommendations involves **two doses**. - **First dose** is given at **9-12 months** of age. - **Second dose** is administered at **15-18 months** (or up to 24 months), approximately **6-12 months after the first dose**. - This provides adequate long-term protection against Japanese encephalitis in endemic areas. *Single dose vaccine* - A single dose does **not provide adequate long-lasting protection** against Japanese encephalitis. - The **immune response** from a single dose is insufficient for routine immunization. - Two doses are required to ensure protective antibody levels. *Three doses 1 month apart followed by a booster if needed* - This schedule is **not part of the routine immunization program** for JE in India. - The standard routine schedule involves **only 2 primary doses**, not three. - Rapid three-dose schedules may be used in specific outbreak situations but not for routine immunization. *Three doses with the second dose 1 month and 3rd dose 6 months after the first dose* - This three-dose schedule is **not the routine JE vaccination schedule** in India. - This may be confused with schedules for other vaccines or older JE vaccine protocols. - The current **routine schedule requires only 2 doses** at specified age intervals.
Question 77: According to PCPNDT Act, 1994, what is the punishment for a doctor found guilty of sex determination for the first offense?
- A. 5 years
- B. 3 years (Correct Answer)
- C. 2 years
- D. 1 year
Explanation: ***3 years*** - The **PCPNDT Act, 1994** (Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques Act) specifies imprisonment of up to **3 years** for a first-time offense of sex determination. - This is paired with a fine of up to **₹10,000**, and the registration of the medical practitioner is also suspended for a period of **five years** for the first offense. - The Act aims to prevent female feticide and maintain the **sex ratio**. *5 years* - An imprisonment term of **5 years** applies for **subsequent offenses** after conviction for the first offense. - The registration can be permanently cancelled for repeat offenders. *2 years* - This duration is **not specified** in the PCPNDT Act as a punishment for sex determination. - Neither imprisonment nor suspension of registration for 2 years is mentioned in the Act for this offense. *1 year* - A 1-year imprisonment is not specified under the PCPNDT Act for sex determination. - The Act intends to impose stringent penalties (up to 3 years for first offense, up to 5 years for subsequent offense) to deter such practices.
Question 78: Group of 4-8 experts talking in front of a large group of audience is known as:
- A. Panel discussion (Correct Answer)
- B. Symposium
- C. Workshop
- D. Seminar
Explanation: ***Panel discussion*** - A **panel discussion** involves a small group of experts (4-8) presenting their views and discussing a specific topic in front of a larger audience. - The format typically includes an initial presentation by each panelist, followed by a moderated discussion among the panelists and sometimes questions from the audience. *Symposium* - A **symposium** is a formal meeting at which several experts or specialists deliver short presentations on a particular subject. - While it involves experts, it typically consists of a series of individual presentations rather than an interactive discussion among the presenters. *Workshop* - A **workshop** is a training or educational meeting where participants engage in intensive discussion and activity on a particular subject or project. - The primary focus is on hands-on learning and skill development for the attendees, not primarily on experts talking to an audience. *Seminar* - A **seminar** is a meeting or conference for discussion or training, usually involving a small group of students or professionals. - It often involves a leader or speaker presenting information, followed by discussion, but it is typically smaller and more interactive than a large expert panel.
Question 79: Infective period of chicken pox is
- A. 2 days before and 5 days after rash appearance (Correct Answer)
- B. 4 days before and 5 days after rash appearance
- C. 4 days before and 4 days after rash appearance
- D. 2 days before and 2 days after rash appearance
Explanation: ***2 days before and 5 days after rash appearance*** - The **infective period** for **chickenpox (varicella)** begins approximately **1-2 days before the rash appears** and continues until **all lesions have crusted over**, which typically occurs around **5-7 days after rash onset**. - According to **CDC guidelines** and standard medical references, patients are contagious from 1-2 days prior to rash onset until all vesicles are scabbed. - The timeframe of **2 days before and 5 days after** represents the **clinically accepted standard** for isolation and infection control purposes. *4 days before and 5 days after rash appearance* - This option **overestimates the start of the infective period**. - The incubation period of chickenpox is 10-21 days, but **infectivity does not begin 4 days before rash** - it starts only 1-2 days prior. - This extended timeframe is not supported by standard medical literature. *4 days before and 4 days after rash appearance* - This option **overestimates when infectivity begins** and **underestimates the duration after rash onset**. - Infectivity starts 1-2 days before rash, not 4 days before. - The period after rash onset should extend until all lesions are crusted (typically 5-7 days). *2 days before and 2 days after rash appearance* - While this option correctly identifies when infectivity begins, it **significantly underestimates the duration after rash onset**. - Patients remain contagious until **all lesions have crusted over**, which usually takes **5-7 days** after rash appearance, not just 2 days. - Premature discontinuation of isolation at 2 days would pose significant infection control risks.
Question 80: Disinfection of urine is which type of disinfection ?
- A. Concurrent (Correct Answer)
- B. Terminal
- C. Preconcurrent
- D. Precurrent
Explanation: ***Concurrent*** - **Concurrent disinfection** refers to the immediate disinfection of infectious materials and objects **as soon as they are discharged** from the body of an infected person. - Disinfection of **body excretions** (urine, feces, sputum) and articles contaminated by them is done **promptly after they are voided**, making it concurrent disinfection. - In the context of urine from infected patients, it should be disinfected **immediately after collection** to prevent spread of infection. *Terminal* - **Terminal disinfection** is performed **after the patient has been discharged, died, or is no longer infectious**. - It involves thorough cleaning and disinfection of the **room, furniture, and environment** that the patient occupied. - Terminal disinfection is not the routine disinfection of body excretions, but rather the final cleaning of the patient's surroundings. *Preconcurrent* - **"Preconcurrent"** is not a standard or recognized term in the classification of disinfection types. - This option does not describe a method or timing of disinfection that is medically or scientifically established. *Precurrent* - Similar to "preconcurrent," **"precurrent"** is not a recognized category or term used to describe a type of disinfection process. - The standard classifications include **concurrent, terminal, and prophylactic disinfection**.