Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the strategic plan for malaria control 2012-2017?
What term is used for a patient who is kept under observation in a hospital for a short period (typically less than 48 hours) to determine if formal admission is necessary?
Under NTEP, what is the honorarium given to a DOTS provider after the completion of treatment?
In a community of 1,000,000 population, 105 children were born in a year, out of which 5 were stillbirths and 4 died within the first year of life. What is the Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)?
At what fluoride concentration in drinking water does skeletal fluorosis typically occur?
What is the nutritional contribution of the Mid-Day Meal Scheme in terms of pulses?
Vanaspati Ghee is fortified with ?
How often is Village Health and Nutrition Day (VHND) observed?
Skin fold thickness is measured in all of the following places, EXCEPT:
Which of the following statements about pathogenic mosquitoes is correct?
NEET-PG 2015 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the strategic plan for malaria control 2012-2017?
- A. 50% reduction in mortality by 2017
- B. Objective is API < 1 per 10,000 (Correct Answer)
- C. Complete treatment to 100% of patients
- D. Annual incidence < 1 per 1000 by 2017
Explanation: ***Objective is API < 1 per 10,000*** - The correct objective for the **Annual Parasite Incidence (API)** in the 2012-2017 strategic plan for malaria control was to reduce it to **less than 1 per 1,000 population**, not 1 per 10,000, making this statement incorrect. - This metric measures the number of new malaria cases per 1,000 people per year. *50% reduction in mortality by 2017* - A key objective of the **National Framework for Malaria Elimination in India** (which this strategic plan aimed to contribute to) was indeed to achieve a significant reduction in malaria-related mortality. - Specifically, aiming for a **50% reduction in mortality** by 2017 was a stated goal to lessen the disease burden. *Annual incidence < 1 per 1000 by 2017* - One of the primary goals of the **Malaria Control Strategic Plan 2012-2017** was to reduce the annual parasite incidence (API) to **less than 1 per 1,000 population** in all endemic areas. - This target focused on decreasing the occurrence of new malaria cases. *Complete treatment to 100% of patients* - A core component of malaria control strategies emphasizes ensuring that **all confirmed malaria cases** receive complete and effective treatment. - Achieving **100% complete treatment adherence** is crucial to prevent drug resistance and eliminate the parasite reservoir.
Question 52: What term is used for a patient who is kept under observation in a hospital for a short period (typically less than 48 hours) to determine if formal admission is necessary?
- A. Inpatient
- B. Outpatient
- C. Urgent care patient
- D. Observation status (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Observation status*** - Patients under **observation status** are monitored in a hospital setting for a short period (typically less than 24-48 hours) to determine if inpatient admission is necessary. - This status is used when the medical condition is uncertain, requiring further evaluation and diagnostic tests to guide treatment decisions. *Inpatient* - An **inpatient** is formally admitted to the hospital for an expected stay of more than 24 hours, often requiring a hospital bed overnight. - This classification is associated with specific billing and care delivery models distinct from observation status. *Outpatient* - An **outpatient** receives medical care at a hospital, clinic, or doctor's office without being admitted for an overnight stay. - Examples include routine check-ups, specialist consultations, and minor surgical procedures performed on the same day. *Urgent care patient* - An **urgent care patient** receives immediate medical attention for illnesses or injuries that are not life-threatening but require prompt treatment. - This care is typically provided in an urgent care clinic, not usually in a hospital setting for 24-hour observation.
Question 53: Under NTEP, what is the honorarium given to a DOTS provider after the completion of treatment?
- A. 150 INR
- B. 500 INR (Correct Answer)
- C. 1000 INR
- D. 250 INR
Explanation: ***500 INR*** - Under the **National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP)**, a **DOTS provider** receives an honorarium of **INR 500** upon the successful completion of tuberculosis treatment for a **new TB patient**. - This incentive, revised from the earlier amount of INR 250, aims to recognize the crucial role of DOTS providers in ensuring treatment adherence and successful outcomes. - The increased honorarium reflects the government's commitment to incentivizing community participation in TB elimination. *150 INR* - This amount is **significantly lower than the stipulated honorarium** for a DOTS provider upon treatment completion under current NTEP guidelines. - The correct incentive for successful completion of treatment is INR 500 for new TB cases. *250 INR* - This was the **earlier honorarium amount** under the previous NTEP guidelines, which has since been **revised upward**. - Under the current NTEP incentive structure, the honorarium for treatment completion has been increased to INR 500. *1000 INR* - This amount is **higher than the designated honorarium** for a DOTS provider upon treatment completion under NTEP. - While this figure may apply to other incentive schemes or different milestones, the standard honorarium for new TB case completion is INR 500.
Question 54: In a community of 1,000,000 population, 105 children were born in a year, out of which 5 were stillbirths and 4 died within the first year of life. What is the Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)?
- A. 40 (Correct Answer)
- B. 90
- C. 120
- D. 150
Explanation: ***40*** - **Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)** = (Deaths in first year of life / Live births) × 1,000 - Live births = Total births - Stillbirths = 105 - 5 = **100** - IMR = (4 / 100) × 1,000 = **40 per 1,000 live births** - Stillbirths are excluded from both numerator and denominator as IMR only counts deaths after live birth *90* - This would result from incorrectly using total births (105) instead of live births (100) in the denominator - Wrong calculation: (4 / 105) × 1,000 ≈ 38, not 90 - This option represents a common error but with incorrect arithmetic *120* - This could result from including stillbirths in the numerator: (5+4) / 100 × 1,000 = 90, not 120 - Or from other miscalculations mixing up the numerator and denominator - Does not follow the standard IMR formula *150* - This represents a significant calculation error - May result from using wrong base (per 100 instead of per 1,000) or including stillbirths incorrectly - Such high IMR does not match the given data of 4 infant deaths per 100 live births
Question 55: At what fluoride concentration in drinking water does skeletal fluorosis typically occur?
- A. < 1.5 mg/L
- B. 1.5-3 mg/L
- C. 3-6 mg/L (Correct Answer)
- D. > 10 mg/L
Explanation: ***3-6 mg/L*** - Chronic exposure to drinking water with **fluoride concentrations of 3-6 mg/L** represents the **threshold range** where **early skeletal fluorosis** begins to manifest. - At concentrations **≥4 mg/L**, fluoride accumulation in bones exceeds the body's excretory capacity, leading to **increased bone density, osteosclerosis**, and early symptoms like **joint stiffness and bone pain**. - This range captures the **onset of skeletal manifestations**, though more severe changes occur at higher concentrations. *< 1.5 mg/L* - This range is **optimal for preventing dental caries** without causing adverse effects. - Fluoride concentrations below 1.5 mg/L are **safe** and do not cause skeletal or dental fluorosis. - Many water fluoridation programs target **0.5-1.0 mg/L** for dental health benefits. *1.5-3 mg/L* - This range primarily causes **dental fluorosis** (enamel mottling and discoloration) with chronic exposure, especially during tooth development. - **Skeletal fluorosis does not typically occur** at these concentrations, as the threshold for bone involvement is higher. - This is considered the range for cosmetic concerns rather than systemic skeletal disease. *> 10 mg/L* - Concentrations exceeding 10 mg/L lead to **severe, crippling skeletal fluorosis** with marked bone deformities, ligament calcification, and potential neurological complications. - This represents **advanced disease** rather than the typical onset of skeletal fluorosis. - Such high concentrations are found in endemic fluorosis regions with contaminated groundwater.
Question 56: What is the nutritional contribution of the Mid-Day Meal Scheme in terms of pulses?
- A. Provides 30% of daily protein needs
- B. Provides 30 gm of pulses per day (Correct Answer)
- C. Provides 50% of daily energy needs
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Provides 30 gm of pulses per day*** - The Mid-Day Meal Scheme specifies the provision of **30 grams of pulses** daily for **upper primary classes (VI-VIII)**, and 20 grams for primary classes (I-V), contributing to protein intake. - This quantity ensures a consistent supply of **plant-based protein** as part of a balanced diet for schoolchildren. - The question refers to the commonly cited **30g standard for upper primary**, which is the most frequently referenced figure in examinations. *Provides 30% of daily protein needs* - While pulses contribute to protein intake, specifying a fixed **30% of daily protein needs** is not a direct nutritional guideline of the scheme for pulses alone. - The scheme focuses on providing a certain **quantity of pulses in grams**, from which the protein contribution is derived. *Provides 50% of daily energy needs* - The Mid-Day Meal Scheme aims to provide **300 kcal for primary** and **700 kcal for upper primary classes**, but this is derived from the entire meal composition (cereals, pulses, vegetables), not just pulses. - The scheme's **energy contribution** is holistic and represents approximately 33% of daily energy requirements, not 50%. *None of the options* - One of the provided options accurately reflects a specific guideline of the Mid-Day Meal Scheme regarding pulses. - The scheme has clear stipulations for the **quantity of pulses in grams** to be served.
Question 57: Vanaspati Ghee is fortified with ?
- A. Iodine
- B. Vitamin A (Correct Answer)
- C. Iron
- D. Calcium
Explanation: ***Vitamin A*** - **Vanaspati Ghee** is commonly fortified with **Vitamin A** to improve its nutritional value and address deficiencies. - Fortification helps to combat **Vitamin A deficiency disorders**, such as **night blindness**. *Iodine* - **Iodine** is typically used to fortify **table salt** to prevent **goiter** and **iodine deficiency disorders**. - It is not commonly added to Vanaspati Ghee. *Iron* - **Iron** is commonly used to fortify foods like **flour** and **cereals** to combat **anemia**. - Vanaspati Ghee is not a common vehicle for iron fortification. *Calcium* - **Calcium** is often added to dairy products or certain beverages to support **bone health**. - It is not a standard fortification for Vanaspati Ghee.
Question 58: How often is Village Health and Nutrition Day (VHND) observed?
- A. Every 6 months
- B. Every week
- C. Every year
- D. Once a month (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Once a month*** - Village Health and Nutrition Day (VHND) is typically observed on a **fixed day each month** to provide essential health and nutrition services at the community level. - This regular schedule ensures consistent access to services like **immunization**, **antenatal care**, and **health education** for rural populations. *Every week* - Observing VHND every week would be a **logistical challenge** given the resources and personnel required for comprehensive service delivery. - Most community-level health programs are not designed for weekly, full-scale events due to the **intensive resource allocation** involved. *Every 6 months* - A frequency of every six months would be **insufficient** to address the ongoing health and nutrition needs of the community, especially for routine immunizations and growth monitoring. - Many public health interventions require more frequent contact to be effective in **preventing disease** and **promoting health**. *Every year* - An annual observation of VHND would be **highly inadequate** for managing public health programs, as it would miss critical windows for interventions like timely immunizations and growth assessments for infants and children. - Annual events are generally reserved for specific campaigns or assessments, not for broad, routine health service delivery.
Question 59: Skin fold thickness is measured in all of the following places, EXCEPT:
- A. Mid triceps
- B. Biceps
- C. Suprailiac
- D. Suprapubic (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Suprapubic*** - The **suprapubic** region is not a standard site for measuring **skinfold thickness** in body composition assessment. - Skinfold measurements are typically taken from areas with subcutaneous fat that are easily accessible and standardized. *Mid triceps* - The **mid-triceps** is a common and important site for measuring skinfold thickness due to its relatively consistent subcutaneous fat distribution. - It is used to estimate total body fat and is a good indicator of **nutritional status**. *Biceps* - The **biceps** region is also a recognized site for skinfold thickness measurements, providing data on upper arm subcutaneous fat. - It is often measured alongside the triceps to give a more comprehensive picture of fat distribution in the arm. *Suprailiac* - The **suprailiac** region, located just above the iliac crest, is a standard site for skinfold measurements. - This site is particularly useful for assessing abdominal fat and is included in many body composition models.
Question 60: Which of the following statements about pathogenic mosquitoes is correct?
- A. Mansonia mosquitoes lay their eggs in rafts.
- B. Culex mosquitoes are primarily vectors for West Nile virus.
- C. Aedes mosquitoes are known for their distinctive black and white striped markings.
- D. Anopheles mosquitoes are known for transmitting malaria. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Correct: Anopheles mosquitoes are known for transmitting malaria.*** - **Anopheles mosquitoes** are the **primary and only vectors** for **malaria**, a parasitic disease caused by Plasmodium parasites. - They transmit the parasite through their **saliva** when they bite humans, typically during **dusk and dawn**. - This is the most significant pathogenic association among the options. *Incorrect: Mansonia mosquitoes lay their eggs in rafts.* - **Mansonia mosquitoes** lay their eggs in **clusters attached to underwater parts of aquatic plants**, not in rafts. - **Culex mosquitoes** are the ones that lay their eggs in **raft-like formations** on water surfaces. *Incorrect: Culex mosquitoes are primarily vectors for West Nile virus.* - While **Culex mosquitoes** can transmit West Nile virus, in the **Indian context** they are primarily known as vectors for **lymphatic filariasis** (Wuchereria bancrofti) and **Japanese encephalitis**. - West Nile virus is more relevant in Western countries and is not the primary disease association for Culex in India. *Incorrect: Aedes mosquitoes are known for their distinctive black and white striped markings.* - While **Aedes aegypti** and **Aedes albopictus** do have **black and white striped markings**, this is a **morphological characteristic** rather than a primary **pathogenic association**. - The question asks about pathogenic mosquitoes, and Aedes is better characterized by its **disease transmission** (dengue, Zika, chikungunya, yellow fever) rather than its appearance. - As a pathogenic mosquito, its **daytime biting behavior** and **urban breeding habits** are more relevant than its markings.