INI-CET 2024 Practice Questions

Q: Which structure is NOT present in the floor of the inferior horn of the lateral ventricle?

Tail of the caudate nucleus. ***Tail of the caudate nucleus*** - The **tail of the caudate nucleus** is located in the **roof** of the inferior horn of the lateral ventricle, not in the floor. - It courses along the lateral aspect of the inferior horn, terminating in the **amygdaloid body** [1]. *Fimbria* - The **fimbria** is a prominent white matter bundle that forms part of the **floor** of the inferior horn of the lateral ventricle. - It consists of efferent fibers from the hippocampus, converging to form the **crus of the fornix**. *Hippocampus* - The **hippocampus** is a major structure in the **floor** of the inferior horn of the lateral ventricle, forming a distinctive bulge [1]. - It plays a critical role in **memory formation** and extends throughout the length of the inferior horn [1]. *Collateral eminence* - The **collateral eminence** is an elevation in the **floor** of the inferior horn, lateral to the hippocampus. - It is formed by the indentation of the collateral sulcus on the inferior surface of the temporal lobe.

Q: In an infant presenting with doll-like facies, which enzyme is deficient in Von Gierke disease?

Glucose 6 phosphatase. ***Glucose 6 phosphatase*** - **Von Gierke disease (Type I glycogen storage disease)** is characterized by a deficiency of **glucose-6-phosphatase**, an enzyme crucial for the final step of gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis. - This enzyme's deficiency leads to the inability to release free glucose from the liver and kidneys, resulting in **hypoglycemia**, hepatomegaly, and the characteristic **doll-like facies** due to fat deposits. *Fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase* - This enzyme is involved in **gluconeogenesis**, catalyzing the conversion of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate to fructose-6-phosphate. - **Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase deficiency** is a distinct metabolic disorder causing hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis, and hepatomegaly, but it does not present with the characteristic features of Von Gierke disease. *Debranching enzyme* - A deficiency in the **debranching enzyme** (**amylo-1,6-glucosidase**) is characteristic of **Cori's disease (GSD III)**. - While it also causes hepatomegaly and hypoglycemia, it typically presents with milder symptoms and a different metabolic profile than Von Gierke disease. *Phosphorylase* - **Glycogen phosphorylase** deficiency is associated with **McArdle's disease (GSD V)** in muscle and **Hers' disease (GSD VI)** in the liver. - These conditions primarily cause muscle weakness and cramping (McArdle's) or mild hypoglycemia and hepatomegaly (Hers'), but not the severe hypoglycemia and characteristic findings of Von Gierke disease.

Q: What ethical statement regarding therapeutic abortion was made in the Declaration of Oslo by the World Medical Association in 1970?

Ethical considerations for therapeutic abortion. ***Ethical considerations for therapeutic abortion*** - The **Declaration of Oslo (1970)** specifically addressed the ethical principles surrounding **therapeutic abortion**, outlining the physician's role and responsibilities. - This declaration provided guidance on situations where a medical practitioner might consider ending a pregnancy to protect the **life or health of the mother**. *Hunger and health rights* - While important ethical considerations, these topics are primarily addressed in other declarations and international human rights instruments, not specifically the **Declaration of Oslo on therapeutic abortion**. - The focus of the Oslo Declaration was narrowly on the **ethical dilemmas surrounding pregnancy termination**. *Prohibition of torture and inhumane treatment* - This ethical statement is primarily associated with documents like the **Declaration of Tokyo (1975)**, which explicitly addresses the physician's role in preventing and condemning torture, not therapeutic abortion. - The content of the Oslo Declaration is distinct from discussions of torture and inhumane treatment. *Ethical guidelines for medical research* - Ethical guidelines for medical research, especially involving human subjects, are primarily covered by documents like the **Declaration of Helsinki (1964)**, not the Declaration of Oslo. - These two declarations serve different purposes and address distinct ethical domains.

Q: A male with hyperpigmentation tanner stage 5 presents with hypertension & precocious puberty. The causative defect is:

11 beta hydroxylase deficiency. ***11 beta hydroxylase deficiency*** - This deficiency leads to an accumulation of **11-deoxycortisol** and **deoxycorticosterone (DOC)**, a potent mineralocorticoid [1]. - **DOC excess** causes **hypertension** and **hypokalemia**, while the shunting of precursors to the androgen pathway results in **precocious puberty** in males and virilization in females, along with **hyperpigmentation** due to increased ACTH [1]. *17 alpha hydroxylase deficiency* - This deficiency impairs the synthesis of **cortisol** and **sex steroids**, leading to an accumulation of **mineralocorticoid precursors (DOC and corticosterone)**. - Patients typically present with **hypertension**, **hypokalemia**, and **absent or rudimentary secondary sexual characteristics** (delayed puberty/sexual infantilism) due to the lack of androgens/estrogens, not precocious puberty. *17 beta hydroxylase deficiency* - This enzyme is crucial for the final step in sex steroid synthesis (e.g., testosterone from androstenedione). - A deficiency would lead to **impaired sexual development** and **ambiguous genitalia or undervirilization** in males, along with delayed puberty, completely contradictory to precocious puberty. *21 beta hydroxylase deficiency* - This is the **most common cause of congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)**, leading to a profound deficiency in cortisol and aldosterone, and an excess in androgens [1]. - Patients typically present with **salt-wasting crises** (due to aldosterone deficiency) or **virilization** (due to androgen excess), but usually **hypotension** (due to salt wasting) or normal blood pressure, not hypertension alongside precocious puberty in this specific manner [1].

Q: Which of the following is the MOST common complication associated with GERD?

Esophagitis. ***Esophagitis*** - **Reflux of gastric acid** into the esophagus directly irritates the esophageal lining, leading to inflammation and cellular damage, commonly presenting as esophagitis [1]. - This recurrent irritation causes histological changes such as **basal cell hyperplasia** and **elongation of papillae**, which are hallmarks of reflux-induced injury [1]. *Chronic cough* - While chronic cough can be a symptom of GERD, it is considered an **extraesophageal manifestation** rather than a direct complication of esophageal mucosal damage. - Its prevalence is lower than esophagitis among GERD complications and it's less direct consequence of acid exposure to the esophagus itself. *Dental erosion* - **Acid reflux** can lead to dental erosion due to the direct contact of acidic gastric contents with tooth enamel. - However, this is less common than esophagitis, which is a direct and frequent consequence of **mucosal acid exposure** within the esophagus [1].

Q: Most reliable indicator of some dehydration?

Thirst. Thirst - **Thirst** is a physiological response to even mild dehydration and is often the **earliest and most reliable indicator** that the body needs fluids [1], [2]. - It reflects an increase in **plasma osmolality**, signaling the brain to initiate fluid-seeking behaviors [1], [2]. *Lethargy* - **Lethargy** indicates more severe dehydration or other underlying conditions, making it a less specific and sensitive early indicator. - It suggests significant neurological impairment due to fluid and electrolyte imbalances, rather than just some dehydration. *Delayed skin pinch* - A **delayed skin pinch** (decreased skin turgor) is a sign of *significant* dehydration, indicating a substantial loss of interstitial fluid. - This sign is often less reliable in infants and the elderly due to differences in skin elasticity. *Sunken eyes* - **Sunken eyes** are a sign of more **moderate to severe dehydration**, reflecting significant fluid volume depletion, especially in infants. - It is not an early or subtle indicator of "some dehydration" but rather a late manifestation [3].

Q: An 80-year-old patient complains of pain, redness, and diminished vision in the left eye. On examination, the intraocular pressure (IOP) in the right eye is 16 mmHg, while the left eye shows 50 mmHg. The left eye also exhibits deep anterior chamber flare and a white cataract. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Phacolytic glaucoma. ***Phacolytic glaucoma*** - The combination of **extremely high intraocular pressure** (50 mmHg) in the left eye, along with a **mature (white) cataract** and **deep anterior chamber flare**, is highly suggestive of phacolytic glaucoma. - This condition occurs when **lens proteins leak** from a hypermature cataract, triggering a macrophagic inflammatory response that **clogs the trabecular meshwork**, leading to an acute rise in IOP. *Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO)* - While CRAO causes acute, profound **vision loss** in one eye, it is generally associated with a **normal or low IOP**, not the extremely high pressure seen in the left eye. - Fundoscopic examination would typically reveal a **cherry-red spot** and **pale retina**, which are not described. *Fuchs' heterochromic iridocyclitis* - This condition is characterized by **chronic, low-grade anterior uveitis** and often leads to **heterochromia** (different colored irises) and **secondary glaucoma**. - However, it typically presents with **mild IOP elevation** (if at all) and not the acute, markedly high pressure and visible white cataract with flare described here. *Malignant glaucoma* - Malignant glaucoma (also known as aqueous misdirection) presents with an **elevated IOP** and is characterized by a **shallow or flat anterior chamber**, often in the presence of a pupillary block mechanism. - The patient's left eye is described as having a **deep anterior chamber** with flare, which contradicts the typical findings of malignant glaucoma.

Q: A 55-year-old male patient presents to the clinic with left lower lip weakness following a recent parotid gland surgery. Considering the surgical history and current symptoms, what is the most likely site of the lesion causing this patient's condition?

Marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve. ***Marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve*** - This branch supplies the muscles around the lower lip, including the **depressor anguli oris** and **depressor labii inferioris**, which are responsible for lower lip movement. - Damage to this specific branch during **parotid gland surgery** is a common cause of isolated **lower lip weakness**, as it runs superficial to the submandibular gland and is vulnerable during dissections in this area. *Main trunk of facial nerve* - Injury to the main trunk would result in **widespread paralysis** of all facial muscles on the affected side, not just isolated lower lip weakness. - The main trunk emerges from the stylomastoid foramen and then enters the parotid gland before branching, so damage here would affect all subsequent branches. *Temporal branch of facial nerve* - This branch innervates muscles responsible for eyebrow movement and forehead wrinkling (e.g., **frontalis muscle**). - Damage to the temporal branch would cause inability to raise the eyebrow and smooth out the forehead, not lower lip weakness. *Parotid duct* - The parotid duct (Stensen's duct) is responsible for transporting saliva from the parotid gland to the oral cavity. - Injury to the parotid duct would lead to complications like **salivary fistula** or **sialocele**, but it does not carry motor innervation to facial muscles and would not cause weakness.

Q: Lower lip paralysis after a parotidectomy is most likely due to injury to which structure?

Marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve. ***Marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve*** - The **marginal mandibular branch** innervates the muscles of the lower lip and chin, including the **depressor anguli oris**, **depressor labii inferioris**, and **mentalis**. - Injury to this nerve during a **parotidectomy**, where it can be inadvertently cut or damaged due to its superficial course over the mandible, results in ipsilateral **lower lip paralysis** and an asymmetric smile. *Buccal branch of the facial nerve* - The **buccal branch** primarily innervates the muscles around the mouth, such as the buccinator and orbicularis oris, affecting **upper lip movement** and cheek function. - Damage to this branch would typically affect functions like chewing and smiling, but not specifically the lower lip. *Cervical branch of the facial nerve* - The **cervical branch** innervates the **platysma muscle**, which is involved in neck skin tension and depressing the mandible. - Injury to this branch would cause weakness or paralysis of the platysma, not lower lip paralysis. *Temporal branch of the facial nerve* - The **temporal branch** innervates the muscles of the forehead and around the eye, including the **frontalis** and **orbicularis oculi**. - Damage to this branch would result in the inability to wrinkle the forehead and close the eye, but not lower lip paralysis.

Question 1

Which structure is NOT present in the floor of the inferior horn of the lateral ventricle?

Accepted Answer

Tail of the caudate nucleus

Answer

Fimbria

Answer

Hippocampus

Answer

Collateral eminence

Question 2

In an infant presenting with doll-like facies, which enzyme is deficient in Von Gierke disease?

Accepted Answer

Glucose 6 phosphatase

Answer

Fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase

Answer

Debranching enzyme

Answer

Phosphorylase

Question 3

What ethical statement regarding therapeutic abortion was made in the Declaration of Oslo by the World Medical Association in 1970?

Accepted Answer

Ethical considerations for therapeutic abortion

Answer

Hunger and health rights

Answer

Prohibition of torture and inhumane treatment

Answer

Ethical guidelines for medical research

Question 4

A male with hyperpigmentation tanner stage 5 presents with hypertension & precocious puberty. The causative defect is:

Accepted Answer

11 beta hydroxylase deficiency

Answer

17 alpha hydroxylase deficiency

Answer

17 beta hydroxylase deficiency

Answer

21 beta hydroxylase deficiency

Question 5

Which of the following is the MOST common complication associated with GERD?

Accepted Answer

Esophagitis

Answer

Chronic cough

Answer

Dental erosion

Answer

None of the options

Question 6

Most reliable indicator of some dehydration?

Accepted Answer

Thirst

Answer

Lethargy

Answer

Delayed skin pinch

Answer

Sunken eyes

Question 7

Assertion: Myocarditis is seen as a complication in faucial diphtheria. Reason: It is due to the exotoxin produced by Corynebacterium diphtheriae.

Accepted Answer

Assertion is true, reason is true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Answer

Assertion is false, reason is true.

Answer

Assertion is true, reason is true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Answer

Assertion is true, reason is true.

Question 8

An 80-year-old patient complains of pain, redness, and diminished vision in the left eye. On examination, the intraocular pressure (IOP) in the right eye is 16 mmHg, while the left eye shows 50 mmHg. The left eye also exhibits deep anterior chamber flare and a white cataract. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Phacolytic glaucoma

Answer

Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO)

Answer

Fuchs' heterochromic iridocyclitis

Answer

Malignant glaucoma

Question 9

A 55-year-old male patient presents to the clinic with left lower lip weakness following a recent parotid gland surgery. Considering the surgical history and current symptoms, what is the most likely site of the lesion causing this patient's condition?

Accepted Answer

Marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve

Answer

Main trunk of facial nerve

Answer

Temporal branch of facial nerve

Answer

Parotid duct

Question 10

Lower lip paralysis after a parotidectomy is most likely due to injury to which structure?

Accepted Answer

Marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve

Answer

Buccal branch of the facial nerve

Answer

Cervical branch of the facial nerve

Answer

Temporal branch of the facial nerve

INI-CET 2024

Anatomy

Biochemistry

Community Medicine

Internal Medicine

Microbiology

Ophthalmology

Surgery