Anatomy
2 questionsIn which location is a transplanted kidney typically placed?
Testicular artery is a branch of -
FMGE 2019 - Anatomy FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 161: In which location is a transplanted kidney typically placed?
- A. Retroperitoneal space
- B. Hypogastric region
- C. Iliac fossa (Correct Answer)
- D. Kidney fossa
Explanation: ***Iliac fossa*** - The **iliac fossa** is the standard site for kidney transplantation due to its accessibility and the proximity of suitable blood vessels (iliac artery and vein) for anastomosis. [1] - Placing the kidney here allows for easier access for potential biopsies and monitoring. *Retroperitoneal space* - The patient's native kidneys are located in the **retroperitoneal space**, but a transplanted kidney is typically placed in a more accessible anterior location. - Transplanting a kidney into the retroperitoneal space would be a more complex and invasive procedure due to the depth and surrounding structures. *Hypogastric region* - While the iliac fossa is part of the broader hypogastric region, the term **hypogastric region** is less specific for the precise anatomical location of kidney transplantation. - The iliac fossa specifically refers to the concave surface of the ilium, which provides a suitable bed for the donated kidney. *Kidney fossa* - **Kidney fossa** is not a formally recognized anatomical term for a specific site of kidney transplantation. - The term "fossa" describes a depression or hollow, but in the context of transplantation, the iliac fossa is the correct anatomical landmark used.
Question 162: Testicular artery is a branch of -
- A. Common iliac artery
- B. External iliac artery
- C. Internal iliac artery
- D. Abdominal aorta (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Abdominal aorta*** - The **testicular arteries**, also known as **gonadal arteries**, originate directly from the anterior aspect of the **abdominal aorta**. - They typically arise just inferior to the **renal arteries** at the level of the second lumbar vertebra (L2) and descend to supply the testes. *Common iliac artery* - The common iliac artery is a terminal branch of the **abdominal aorta**, but it gives rise to the internal and external iliac arteries, not directly the testicular artery. [2] - It bifurcates at the level of the sacroiliac joint. [3] *External iliac artery* - The external iliac artery primarily supplies the **lower limb** and gives off the inferior epigastric and deep circumflex iliac arteries. [1] - It does not directly provide branches to the testes. *Internal iliac artery* - The internal iliac artery primarily supplies the **pelvic organs**, gluteal region, and perineum. - While it has numerous branches, none of them are the main gonadal arteries; it contributes to the blood supply of the reproductive organs through other smaller branches. [3]
Internal Medicine
1 questionsThe contraceptive which is contraindicated in DVT is?
FMGE 2019 - Internal Medicine FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 161: The contraceptive which is contraindicated in DVT is?
- A. Barrier method
- B. Non hormonal IUCD
- C. Billing's method
- D. OCP (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***OCP*** - **Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs)**, especially those containing estrogen, increase the risk of **venous thromboembolism (VTE)**, including deep vein thrombosis (DVT). - Estrogen promotes a **hypercoagulable state** by increasing clotting factors and decreasing natural anticoagulants. *Barrier method* - **Barrier methods** like condoms or diaphragms are non-hormonal and act physically to prevent sperm from reaching the egg. - They have **no systemic effects** on coagulation and are safe for individuals with DVT. *Non hormonal IUCD* - **Non-hormonal intrauterine contraceptive devices (IUCDs)**, such as copper IUCDs, prevent conception primarily by causing a local inflammatory reaction in the uterus. - They do not release hormones and therefore **do not affect coagulation** or increase DVT risk. *Billing's method* - The **Billing's ovulation method** (cervical mucus method) is a natural family planning technique based on observing changes in cervical mucus. - It involves no medications or devices and thus has **no impact on DVT risk**.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionshCG is secreted by?
FMGE 2019 - Obstetrics and Gynecology FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 161: hCG is secreted by?
- A. Cytotrophoblast
- B. Yolk sac
- C. Decidua
- D. Syncytiotrophoblast (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Syncytiotrophoblast*** - The **syncytiotrophoblast** is the outer layer of the trophoblast that invades the uterine wall and is responsible for producing human chorionic gonadotropin (**hCG**). - Production of **hCG** by the **syncytiotrophoblast** begins shortly after implantation and is crucial for maintaining the **corpus luteum** and thus **progesterone** secretion during early pregnancy. *Cytotrophoblast* - The **cytotrophoblast** is the inner layer of the trophoblast that proliferates and differentiates into the **syncytiotrophoblast**. - While essential for placental development, the **cytotrophoblast** itself does not directly secrete **hCG**. *Yolk sac* - The **yolk sac** is involved in early nourishment of the embryo and plays a role in the formation of **primitive blood cells** and **germ cells**. - It does not produce **hCG**; its main functions are related to nutrition and hematopoiesis before the placenta is fully functional. *Decidua* - The **decidua** is the modified endometrial lining of the uterus during pregnancy, derived from **maternal tissue**. - It does not produce **hCG** as it is maternal in origin, whereas **hCG** is produced by fetal-derived **trophoblastic cells**.
Orthopaedics
1 questionsA 6-year-old child is suspected with supracondylar fracture of right hand, complaining of pain and swelling. X-ray of right elbow was not significant. What is the next best step in this case?
FMGE 2019 - Orthopaedics FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 161: A 6-year-old child is suspected with supracondylar fracture of right hand, complaining of pain and swelling. X-ray of right elbow was not significant. What is the next best step in this case?
- A. Cast
- B. Closed reduction with K wire fixation
- C. Compare with X-ray of left hand (Correct Answer)
- D. Closed reduction and slab
Explanation: ***Compare with X-ray of left hand*** - In pediatric elbow injuries, a seemingly **normal X-ray** in the presence of strong clinical suspicion (pain, swelling, suspected supracondylar fracture) often warrants a comparison view of the contralateral unaffected limb. - This helps identify subtle findings like **epiphyseal separations** or **minimally displaced fractures** that might otherwise be missed due to the developing osseous structures in children. *Cast* - Applying a cast without definitive diagnosis or clear radiographic evidence of a fracture can lead to **unnecessary immobilization** and potential complications if no fracture is present, or inadequate treatment if a specific type of fracture requires reduction. - While immobilization is appropriate for confirmed fractures, it's not the **initial diagnostic step** when X-rays are inconclusive. *Closed reduction with K wire fixation* - This is an **invasive procedure** reserved for **displaced or unstable fractures** after a clear diagnosis has been established. - Performing this without a confirmed and characterized fracture is inappropriate and carries risks of **iatrogenic injury** and complications. *Closed reduction and slab* - Similar to casting, this is a treatment for **confirmed fractures**, typically for acute, stable, or minimally displaced fractures that can be managed non-surgically after a reduction. - It is not a diagnostic step and should not be performed when initial imaging is **inconclusive** and the exact nature of the injury is unknown.
Pediatrics
2 questionsSixth disease is?
For severe acute malnutrition in children (6-59 months), MAC will be less than
FMGE 2019 - Pediatrics FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 161: Sixth disease is?
- A. Erythema nodosum
- B. Erythema marginatum
- C. Erythema Infectiosum
- D. Exanthema subitum (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Exanthema subitum*** - Exanthema subitum, also known as **Roseola infantum** or **sixth disease**, is a common childhood illness caused by human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6) or less commonly HHV-7. - It is characterized by **3-5 days of high fever** followed by the abrupt appearance of a **maculopapular rash** once the fever subsides. *Erythema nodosum* - **Erythema nodosum** presents as tender, red nodules, typically on the shins, and is a type of **panniculitis** (inflammation of subcutaneous fat). - It is often associated with systemic diseases, infections (e.g., strep throat, tuberculosis), drugs, or inflammatory bowel disease, rather than being a primary childhood viral exanthem. *Erythema marginatum* - **Erythema marginatum** is a rare, transient, and non-pruritic rash with **serpiginous (snake-like) borders** that is a specific hallmark of **acute rheumatic fever**. - It is not a generalized viral exanthem and does not follow a typical febrile phase like sixth disease. *Erythema Infectiosum* - **Erythema infectiosum**, also known as **fifth disease**, is caused by **parvovirus B19** and is characterized by a "slapped cheek" rash on the face followed by a lacy rash on the trunk and extremities. - While it's a common childhood exanthem, it's distinct from sixth disease in its causative agent and characteristic rash pattern.
Question 162: For severe acute malnutrition in children (6-59 months), MAC will be less than
- A. 11.5 cm (Correct Answer)
- B. 13.5 cm
- C. 12.5 cm
- D. 14.5 cm
Explanation: ***11.5 cm*** - A **Mid-Upper Arm circumference (MUAC) below 11.5 cm** is a key diagnostic criterion for **severe acute malnutrition (SAM)** in children aged 6-59 months. - This measurement is a simple and effective screening tool in resource-limited settings to identify children at high risk of mortality due to malnutrition [1]. *13.5 cm* - A MUAC of 13.5 cm or greater is generally considered **nutritionally healthy** for children in this age group, indicating adequate muscle and fat reserves. - This measurement would typically rule out severe acute malnutrition and often even moderate malnutrition. *12.5 cm* - A MUAC between 11.5 cm and 12.5 cm is typically indicative of **moderate acute malnutrition (MAM)**, not severe acute malnutrition. - While concerning, it suggests a less critical nutritional status compared to a MUAC below 11.5 cm. *14.5 cm* - A MUAC of 14.5 cm or greater is well within the healthy range for children aged 6-59 months, indicating **good nutritional status**. - This measurement would suggest no signs of acute malnutrition.
Pharmacology
2 questionsMechanism of action of allopurinol is
Which of the following drug causes postural hypotension commonly?
FMGE 2019 - Pharmacology FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 161: Mechanism of action of allopurinol is
- A. Recombinant uricase
- B. Decrease chemotaxis
- C. Increase uric acid excretion
- D. Xanthine oxidase inhibition (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Xanthine oxidase inhibition*** - **Allopurinol** acts as a **structural analog of hypoxanthine** and competitively inhibits the enzyme **xanthine oxidase**. - By inhibiting **xanthine oxidase**, allopurinol prevents the conversion of hypoxanthine to xanthine and then to uric acid, thereby **decreasing uric acid production**. *Recombinant uricase* - **Recombinant uricase** (e.g., rasburicase, pegloticase) is an enzyme that catalyzes the breakdown of existing uric acid into allantoin, a more soluble compound. - This mechanism is distinct from allopurinol, which **prevents uric acid formation**. *Decrease chemotaxis* - Medications that **decrease chemotaxis**, such as **colchicine**, work by interfering with the migration of neutrophils to sites of inflammation, which is useful in acute gout flares. - This is an **anti-inflammatory mechanism**, not related to uric acid synthesis or excretion. *Increase uric acid excretion* - Drugs that **increase uric acid excretion** are known as **uricosurics** (e.g., probenecid, lesinurad). - These agents act on the renal tubules to **inhibit uric acid reabsorption**, thus promoting its elimination from the body.
Question 162: Which of the following drug causes postural hypotension commonly?
- A. Alpha blocker (Correct Answer)
- B. Angiotensin receptor blockers
- C. Beta blocker
- D. ACE inhibitor
Explanation: ***Alpha blocker*** - **Alpha-1 adrenergic blockers** cause common postural hypotension by blocking **alpha-1 receptors** on vascular smooth muscle, leading to vasodilation and reduced peripheral vascular resistance. - This vasodilation, especially in the upright position, can cause blood to pool in the lower extremities, decreasing venous return to the heart and thus lowering blood pressure. *Angiotensin receptor blockers* - These drugs block the effects of **angiotensin II**, leading to vasodilation and decreased aldosterone secretion, typically causing a more gradual and less pronounced drop in blood pressure. - While they can cause hypotension, **postural hypotension** is less common and usually less severe compared to alpha blockers due to their different mechanism of action and less abrupt vasodilation. *Beta blocker* - **Beta-blockers** primarily reduce heart rate and myocardial contractility, thereby decreasing cardiac output, which can contribute to generalized hypotension. - They do not directly cause significant **vasodilation** in the same manner as alpha-blockers, making postural hypotension less common unless there are other contributing factors. *ACE inhibitor* - **ACE inhibitors** prevent the conversion of angiotensin I to **angiotensin II**, leading to vasodilation and reduced aldosterone. - They can cause hypotension, especially with the first dose or in volume-depleted patients, but **postural hypotension** is typically less frequent and severe than with alpha-blockers.
Physiology
1 questionsTestosterone is secreted by:
FMGE 2019 - Physiology FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 161: Testosterone is secreted by:
- A. Leydig cell (Correct Answer)
- B. Granulosa cell
- C. Theca cells
- D. Sertoli cell
Explanation: ***Leydig cell*** - **Leydig cells** are located in the **interstitial tissue** of the testes and are responsible for producing **testosterone** in response to **luteinizing hormone (LH)** stimulation. - They are the primary source of androgens in males, crucial for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics and spermatogenesis. *Granulosa cell* - **Granulosa cells** are found in the **ovarian follicles** and are primarily involved in the production of **estrogen** and **progesterone** in females. - They surround the oocyte and convert androgens (produced by theca cells) into estrogens. *Theca cells* - **Theca cells** are found in the **ovarian follicles** and produce **androgens** (mainly androstenedione) in response to **LH** stimulation. - These androgens are then converted to estrogens by the adjacent granulosa cells through aromatization. - While they produce androgens, they are not the primary source of testosterone in the body. *Sertoli cell* - **Sertoli cells** are located in the **seminiferous tubules** of the testes and provide structural and metabolic support for **spermatogenesis**. - They produce substances like **androgen-binding protein**, inhibin, and Müllerian inhibiting factor, but they do not secrete testosterone.