Anatomy
1 questionsTendons in the 2nd compartment of wrist?
FMGE 2017 - Anatomy FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 61: Tendons in the 2nd compartment of wrist?
- A. Extensor pollicis longus
- B. Extensor pollicis brevis
- C. Abductor pollicis longus
- D. Extensor carpi radialis brevis and longus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Extensor carpi radialis brevis and longus*** - The **second dorsal compartment** of the wrist houses the tendons of the **extensor carpi radialis longus (ECRL)** and **extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB)** muscles [1]. - These muscles are primarily responsible for **wrist extension** and **radial deviation** of the hand [1]. *Extensor pollicis longus* - The **extensor pollicis longus (EPL)** tendon is located in the **third dorsal compartment** of the wrist [1]. - Its main function is to **extend the thumb's interphalangeal joint** and contributes to extension and adduction of the thumb. *Extensor pollicis brevis* - The **extensor pollicis brevis (EPB)** tendon is found in the **first dorsal compartment** of the wrist [1]. - It works with the abductor pollicis longus to form the **anatomical snuffbox** and primarily **extends the metacarpophalangeal joint** of the thumb [1]. *Abductor pollicis longus* - The **abductor pollicis longus (APL)** tendon is also located in the **first dorsal compartment** of the wrist [1]. - Its primary actions are to **abduct** (move away from the palm) and **extend the thumb** at the carpometacarpal joint [1].
Internal Medicine
4 questionsWhich of the following conditions should not be considered if JVP rises on deep inspiration?
Initial treatment for management of mild to moderate Crohn's disease is:
Which of the following leads to development of SIADH?
Which of the following is the best investigation for acute gout?
FMGE 2017 - Internal Medicine FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 61: Which of the following conditions should not be considered if JVP rises on deep inspiration?
- A. Complete heart block
- B. Constrictive pericarditis
- C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
- D. Atrial fibrillation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: The phenomenon of JVP rising on deep inspiration is known as **Kussmaul's sign**, which is indicative of impaired right ventricular filling and is not typically associated with **atrial fibrillation**. In **complete heart block**, there is dissociation between atrial and ventricular contractions. This can lead to **cannon 'a' waves** in the JVP, which are large prominent 'a' waves caused by right atrial contraction against a closed tricuspid valve [1]. **Constrictive pericarditis** is characterized by a rigid pericardium that restricts diastolic filling of the right ventricle. This condition is a classic cause of **Kussmaul's sign**, where the JVP rises paradoxically during inspiration due to increased venous return that cannot be accommodated by the constricted ventricle. **Restrictive cardiomyopathy** involves impaired diastolic filling of the ventricles due to myocardial stiffness. It can also cause a paradoxical rise in JVP during inspiration (**Kussmaul's sign**) because the stiffened right ventricle cannot adequately accommodate the inspiratory increase in venous return.
Question 62: Initial treatment for management of mild to moderate Crohn's disease is:
- A. Mesalamine
- B. Infliximab
- C. Sulfasalazine
- D. Budesonide (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Budesonide*** - **Budesonide** is a **steroid** with high first-pass metabolism, meaning it works locally in the gastrointestinal tract with minimal systemic effects, making it suitable for mild to moderate Crohn's disease. - It is effective in inducing remission for mild to moderate ileocolonic Crohn's disease, with a better safety profile than systemic corticosteroids. *Mesalamine* - **Mesalamine (5-ASA)** is primarily used for **ulcerative colitis** and has limited efficacy in Crohn's disease, especially for moderate disease. - While it can be considered for very mild Crohn's disease, its role is often debated and not a first-line agent for moderate cases. *Infliximab* - **Infliximab** is a **biologic agent (anti-TNF-α)** used for moderate to severe Crohn's disease or for patients who have failed conventional therapy. - It works by blocking a key inflammatory cytokine and is not typically used as initial treatment for mild disease due to its potency and potential side effects. *Sulfasalazine* - **Sulfasalazine** is more effective in **colonic Crohn's disease** and **ulcerative colitis**, and its efficacy in small bowel Crohn's disease is limited [1]. - Many patients experience side effects such as **nausea**, **headaches**, and **allergic reactions**, limiting its use as a first-line agent.
Question 63: Which of the following leads to development of SIADH?
- A. Lung cancer
- B. Pituitary adenoma
- C. CNS disorders (Correct Answer)
- D. All of the options
Explanation: ***CNS disorders*** - Neurological conditions such as **stroke**, hemorrhage, infection, and trauma can cause inappropriate **ADH release** due to damage or irritation of the hypothalamus or posterior pituitary [2]. - This leads to increased water reabsorption and subsequent **hyponatremia** characteristic of SIADH [1]. *Lung cancer* - Certain types of **lung cancer**, particularly **small cell lung carcinoma (SCLC)**, are known to produce ADH ectopically, leading to SIADH. - This represents a **paraneoplastic syndrome**, where the tumor cells independently synthesize and secrete ADH. *Pituitary adenoma* - While pituitary adenomas can cause various endocrine dysfunctions, they are generally **not a direct cause of SIADH**. - **SIADH** typically results from unregulated ADH secretion rather than a primary pituitary tumor's overproduction of ADH itself. *All of the options* - Although **lung cancer** and **CNS disorders** are well-established causes of SIADH, **pituitary adenomas** are not a common or direct cause. - Therefore, choosing "all of the options" would be incorrect due to the inclusion of pituitary adenoma as a direct cause.
Question 64: Which of the following is the best investigation for acute gout?
- A. Uric acid in urine
- B. Anti CCP antibodies
- C. Serum uric acid
- D. Uric acid in synovial fluid (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Uric acid in synovial fluid*** - The definitive diagnosis of acute gout is established by identifying **negatively birefringent needle-shaped uric acid crystals** within the synovial fluid of the affected joint [1]. - This method directly confirms the presence of **monosodium urate crystals**, which are the hallmark of gout, offering diagnostic certainty [1]. *Uric acid in urine* - While urinary uric acid levels can help assess uric acid excretion, they are not diagnostic for acute gout and do not directly show the presence of **intra-articular crystals**. - This test is more relevant for investigating the **cause of hyperuricemia** (overproduction vs. underexcretion) rather than diagnosing an acute flare. *Anti CCP antibodies* - **Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibodies** are markers for **rheumatoid arthritis** and are not relevant for the diagnosis of acute gout. - Their presence indicates an autoimmune inflammatory condition distinct from crystal-induced arthropathy. *Serum uric acid* - Serum uric acid levels are often elevated during an acute gout flare (**hyperuricemia**), but this is not diagnostic, as many individuals with hyperuricemia never develop gout [1]. - Approximately 30% of patients may have **normal serum uric acid levels** during an acute attack, making it an unreliable sole diagnostic criterion.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsA 25 year old lady presented with curdy white discharge from the vagina is likely to be suffering from:-
FMGE 2017 - Obstetrics and Gynecology FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 61: A 25 year old lady presented with curdy white discharge from the vagina is likely to be suffering from:-
- A. Trichomoniasis
- B. Gonococcal vulvovaginitis
- C. Chlamydia trachomatis
- D. Candida vaginitis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Candida vaginitis*** - **Candida vaginitis** is characterized by a **curdy white vaginal discharge**, often described as cottage cheese-like. - This condition is caused by an overgrowth of *Candida* species, typically *Candida albicans*, and is associated with **vaginal itching, burning**, and **dyspareunia**. *Trichomoniasis* - **Trichomoniasis** typically presents with a **frothy, greenish-yellow discharge** and a **foul odor**. - It often causes **severe itching, redness, and irritation**, which differ from the curdy discharge described. *Gonococcal vulvovaginitis* - **Gonococcal vulvovaginitis** in women can cause a **purulent or mucopurulent discharge**, often yellowish. - While it can lead to vaginal irritation, a **curdy white discharge** is not its classic presentation. *Chlamydia trachomatis* - **Chlamydia trachomatis** often causes an **asymptomatic infection**; when symptoms occur, they may include a **mucopurulent discharge**. - A **curdy white discharge** is not a typical symptom of *Chlamydia* infection.
Pathology
1 questionsWhich of the following breast lesions characteristically shows central necrosis with calcification?
FMGE 2017 - Pathology FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 61: Which of the following breast lesions characteristically shows central necrosis with calcification?
- A. Cribriform sub type of DCIS
- B. Lobular carcinoma in situ
- C. Colloid carcinoma
- D. Comedo sub type of DCIS (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Comedo sub type of DCIS*** - This subtype is characterized by high-grade pleomorphic tumor cells with **central necrosis** within the ducts [1]. - The necrotic debris often calcifies, leading to characteristic **microcalcifications** visible on mammograms [2]. *Cribriform sub type of DCIS* - This subtype features uniform cells forming gland-like spaces within the ducts, but **typically lacks significant central necrosis** and extensive calcification [1]. - It usually presents with a **low nuclear grade** and less aggressive features compared to comedo DCIS [1]. *Lobular carcinoma in situ* - Characterized by small, discohesive cells filling and expanding the acini of the lobules, but it **does not involve ductal necrosis or calcification**. - It is often an **incidental finding** and represents a marker for increased risk of invasive carcinoma in either breast, rather than an obligate precursor lesion visible with calcifications. *Colloid carcinoma* - This is a type of **invasive ductal carcinoma** where tumor cells float in abundant extracellular mucin. - While it is an invasive cancer, it does not typically present with the extensive **ductal necrosis and calcification** seen in comedo DCIS. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Breast, pp. 1062-1064. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Liver And Biliary System Disease, pp. 452-453.
Pharmacology
3 questionsWhich of the following local anesthetics is the most common cause of methemoglobinemia?
Disulfiram is a type of:-
Venlafaxine comes under which class of drugs?
FMGE 2017 - Pharmacology FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 61: Which of the following local anesthetics is the most common cause of methemoglobinemia?
- A. Lignocaine
- B. Benzocaine (Correct Answer)
- C. Chloroprocaine
- D. EMLA Cream (Lignocaine + Prilocaine)
- E. Prilocaine
- F. Dibucaine
Explanation: ***Benzocaine***- **Benzocaine** is an ester-type local anesthetic that is the **most common cause of methemoglobinemia** among local anesthetics, especially when used in high doses or on mucous membranes due to its rapid absorption.- Its metabolic byproducts, particularly **aniline derivatives**, are potent oxidizers of hemoglobin, converting the ferrous iron (Fe2+) to ferric iron (Fe3+), thus forming methemoglobin which cannot bind oxygen.- **FDA warnings** have been issued regarding benzocaine-induced methemoglobinemia, particularly with topical spray preparations.*Lignocaine*- **Lignocaine** (lidocaine) is an amide-type local anesthetic and is **rarely associated** with methemoglobinemia.- While it can theoretically cause it in very high doses, it is significantly **less potent** in this regard compared to benzocaine.*Chloroprocaine*- **Chloroprocaine** is an ester-type local anesthetic with a very **short duration of action** due to rapid hydrolysis by plasma cholinesterases.- This rapid metabolism typically limits systemic exposure and makes it an **uncommon cause** of methemoglobinemia despite being an ester.*Prilocaine*- **Prilocaine** is an amide-type local anesthetic that can also cause methemoglobinemia, particularly at **higher doses (>600mg)** [1, 2].- It works through its metabolite, **o-toluidine**, which is an oxidizing agent [1].- However, **benzocaine** is more consistently linked to this adverse effect in clinical practice and has more documented case reports.
Question 62: Disulfiram is a type of:-
- A. Anticraving therapy
- B. Detoxification
- C. Opioid management therapy
- D. Aversion therapy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Aversion therapy** - **Disulfiram** works by inhibiting aldehyde dehydrogenase, leading to the accumulation of acetaldehyde when alcohol is consumed, which causes unpleasant symptoms like flushing, nausea, and vomiting. - This creates an **aversive reaction** to alcohol, which discourages further drinking, making it a form of aversion therapy. *Anticraving therapy* - While disulfiram can indirectly reduce cravings by making alcohol consumption unpleasant, its primary mechanism is not to directly modulate craving pathways in the brain. - Drugs like **naltrexone** or **acamprosate** are more commonly categorized as specific anticraving agents for alcohol dependence. *Detoxification* - **Detoxification** refers to the supervised withdrawal from a substance to manage acute withdrawal symptoms and stabilize the patient. - Disulfiram is used after detoxification to help maintain abstinence, not during the acute withdrawal phase. *Opioid management therapy* - **Opioid management therapy** involves medications like **methadone** or **buprenorphine** used to treat opioid dependence. - Disulfiram is specifically used for **alcohol use disorder** and has no role in managing opioid dependence.
Question 63: Venlafaxine comes under which class of drugs?
- A. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
- B. Serotonin receptor antagonist
- C. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
- D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Serotonergic noradrenergic reuptake inhibitor*** - **Venlafaxine** is an antidepressant that works by inhibiting the reuptake of both **serotonin** and **norepinephrine**, making it a **Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor (SNRI)**. - This dual mechanism contributes to its efficacy in treating **major depressive disorder**, **anxiety disorders**, and **neuropathic pain**. *Monoamine oxidase inhibitors* - **MAOIs** inhibit the enzyme **monoamine oxidase**, which metabolizes neurotransmitters like **serotonin**, **norepinephrine**, and **dopamine**. - They are associated with significant **food and drug interactions**, unlike venlafaxine. *Serotonin receptor antagonist* - These drugs *block* **serotonin receptors**, often used as **antiemetics** (e.g., ondansetron) or in some **antipsychotics**. - They do not primarily increase serotonin or norepinephrine levels via reuptake inhibition. *Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor* - **SSRIs** (e.g., fluoxetine, sertraline) primarily inhibit the reuptake of **serotonin**, with minimal effect on other neurotransmitters. - While venlafaxine affects serotonin, it also significantly impacts norepinephrine, distinguishing it from SSRIs.