FMGE 2017 — Internal Medicine
14 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations
Heberden's arthropathy affects:
Meningococcal meningitis is seen with which of the following complement deficiency?
Which of the following is not associated with pulmonary arterial hypertension?
Which of these is least effective as first-line treatment for dangerous hyperkalemia?
All of the following syndromes are seen with obesity except:
Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia is most characteristically seen due to which of the following infections?
Which of the following is true about carcinoid tumor?
Fatty liver with hepatomegaly is seen in:
Painless burn in hand is seen in:
Which type of anemia is seen in patients of rheumatoid arthritis?
FMGE 2017 - Internal Medicine FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Heberden's arthropathy affects:
- A. Distal interphalangeal joint (Correct Answer)
- B. Lumbar spine involvement
- C. Sacroiliac joint involvement
- D. Knee joint involvement
Explanation: ***Distal interphalangeal joint*** - **Heberden's nodes** are pathognomonic bony enlargements that occur on the **distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints** of the fingers [1]. - They are a classic sign of **osteoarthritis**, resulting from cartilage degeneration and new bone formation [1]. *Lumbar spine involvement* - While osteoarthritis can affect the **lumbar spine**, it presents as **back pain** and stiffness, not as nodules on the fingers [1]. - **Heberden's nodes** are specifically associated with peripheral joint involvement, not axial skeleton [1]. *Sacroiliac joint involvement* - **Sacroiliac joint involvement** is characteristic of **spondyloarthropathies** like ankylosing spondylitis, causing inflammatory back pain [1]. - It does not present with bony nodes on the fingers, which are typical of osteoarthritic changes [1]. *Knee joint involvement* - **Knee joint involvement** is common in osteoarthritis, causing pain, swelling, and reduced range of motion [1]. - However, **Heberden's nodes** are distinct from knee symptoms and refer specifically to changes in the DIP joints [1].
Question 2: Meningococcal meningitis is seen with which of the following complement deficiency?
- A. C4
- B. C1q
- C. C5 (Correct Answer)
- D. C2
Explanation: ***C5*** - Deficiencies in terminal complement components (C5-C9) lead to impaired formation of the **membrane attack complex (MAC)**, which is crucial for lysing Neisseria species [1]. - This significantly increases susceptibility to recurrent infections, particularly by **encapsulated bacteria** like *Neisseria meningitidis*, causing diseases such as meningococcal meningitis [2]. *C4* - C4 deficiency is primarily associated with **lupus-like syndromes** and **vasculitis**, due to impaired clearance of immune complexes. - While it can lead to some increased risk of infection, it is not specifically linked to a marked predisposition to meningococcal disease. *C1q* - C1q deficiency also leads to impaired **immune complex clearance** and is strongly associated with **systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)**. - Like C4 deficiency, it does not typically present with recurrent meningococcal infections as the primary manifestation. *C2* - C2 deficiency is the **most common complement deficiency** and is associated with **lupus-like syndromes** and increased susceptibility to **pyogenic bacterial infections**. - Though it can lead to some increased infection risk, C2 deficiency is not as strongly or specifically linked to recurrent meningococcal meningitis as deficiencies in the terminal complement pathway [2].
Question 3: Which of the following is not associated with pulmonary arterial hypertension?
- A. Cor - pulmonale
- B. Left ventricular hypertrophy (Correct Answer)
- C. Mitral Stenosis
- D. Interstitial lung disease
Explanation: ***Left ventricular hypertrophy*** - **Left ventricular hypertrophy** is typically caused by conditions that increase the workload on the left ventricle, such as **systemic hypertension** or **aortic stenosis** [1]. - Pulmonary arterial hypertension directly affects the **pulmonary vasculature**, leading to increased pressure in the pulmonary circuit and ultimately right heart strain, not left ventricular hypertrophy. *Cor pulmonale* - **Cor pulmonale** is defined as **right ventricular enlargement** secondary to lung disease or pulmonary vascular disease. - Pulmonary arterial hypertension increases the afterload on the right ventricle, causing it to dilate and hypertrophy, eventually leading to **right heart failure** (cor pulmonale) [2]. *Mitral Stenosis* - **Mitral stenosis** causes an obstruction to blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, leading to increased pressure in the left atrium and pulmonary veins. - This elevated pressure can be transmitted backward into the pulmonary arteries, leading to **pulmonary arterial hypertension** [3]. *Interstitial lung disease* - **Interstitial lung disease** (ILD) can lead to destruction and remodeling of the pulmonary capillaries, increasing pulmonary vascular resistance [2]. - This increased resistance causes the pulmonary arterial pressure to rise, resulting in **pulmonary arterial hypertension**.
Question 4: Which of these is least effective as first-line treatment for dangerous hyperkalemia?
- A. Calcium chloride injection
- B. Beta-2 agonist (Salbutamol)
- C. Intravenous sodium bicarbonate (Correct Answer)
- D. Dialysis (Hemodialysis)
Explanation: ***Intravenous sodium bicarbonate*** - While it can drive potassium into cells, its effect is often **delayed and unreliable** in acute, dangerous hyperkalemia, especially without concurrent acidosis. - Its efficacy is most pronounced when hyperkalemia is associated with **metabolic acidosis**, which is not always the primary driving factor of dangerous hyperkalemia. *Calcium chloride injection* - This is a **first-line treatment** for dangerous hyperkalemia, as it **stabilizes the cardiac membrane** by antagonizing the direct effects of potassium on myocardial excitability [1]. - It does not lower serum potassium levels but **protects the heart** from life-threatening arrhythmias, buying time for other therapies to reduce potassium [1]. *Beta-2 agonist (Salbutamol)* - **Beta-2 agonists** like salbutamol are effective in shifting potassium **intracellularly**, thereby lowering serum potassium levels. - This effect is mediated by stimulating the **Na+/K+-ATPase pump** on cell membranes. *Dialysis (Hemodialysis)* - **Hemodialysis** is the **most effective and rapid** method for removing excess potassium from the body, especially in cases of severe or refractory hyperkalemia. - It provides definitive treatment by directly **filtering potassium** from the blood, and is often considered when other measures fail or in patients with kidney failure.
Question 5: All of the following syndromes are seen with obesity except:
- A. Laurence Moon - Biedl syndrome
- B. Cohen syndrome
- C. Prader - Willi syndrome
- D. Carcinoid syndrome (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Carcinoid syndrome*** - Carcinoid syndrome is caused by **neuroendocrine tumors** that secrete **serotonin** and other vasoactive substances, leading to symptoms like flushing, diarrhea, and bronchospasm [2]. **Obesity is not a primary feature** of this syndrome. - The symptoms are directly related to the **hormonal effects** of the secreted substances, not to metabolic alterations associated with obesity. *Laurence Moon - Biedl syndrome* - This is a **rare genetic disorder** characterized by **obesity**, retinitis pigmentosa, polydactyly, intellectual disability, and hypogonadism [1]. - Obesity is a **consistent and prominent feature** of this syndrome, often present from childhood. *Cohen syndrome* - Cohen syndrome is a rare genetic disorder characterized by **obesity** (especially truncal obesity), intellectual disability, microcephaly, characteristic facial features, and hypotonia. - While not as universally severe as in some other syndromes, **obesity is a common clinical feature** of Cohen syndrome. *Prader - Willi syndrome* - Prader-Willi syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by a deletion on chromosome 15, leading to **insatiable hunger (hyperphagia)** and chronic overeating, which results in **severe obesity** [1]. - **Obesity is a cardinal feature** of this syndrome, developing in early childhood due to hypothalamic dysfunction affecting appetite control.
Question 6: Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia is most characteristically seen due to which of the following infections?
- A. Roundworm
- B. Trichinella
- C. Ancylostoma
- D. Filaria (Correct Answer)
Explanation: *Filaria* - **Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia (TPE)** is a hypersensitivity reaction to microfilariae from filarial nematodes like *Wuchereria bancrofti* and *Brugia malayi* [1]. - It is characterized by cough, dyspnea, wheezing, and marked **peripheral eosinophilia**, with interstitial infiltrates on chest X-ray [1]. *Roundworm* - **Ascaris lumbricoides** can cause **Loeffler's syndrome**, a transient pulmonary infiltration with eosinophilia during larval migration, but not chronic TPE [2]. - Symptoms are usually less severe and self-limiting compared to TPE [2]. *Trichinella* - **Trichinella spiralis** causes **trichinellosis**, presenting with muscle pain, fever, and periorbital edema, possibly with eosinophilia, but typically does not manifest as TPE. - Pulmonary involvement is rare and not the characteristic feature. *Ancylostoma* - **Hookworm (Ancylostoma duodenale, Necator americanus)** larvae can cause mild pulmonary symptoms and eosinophilia during migration through the lungs [3]. - However, they also do not typically lead to the severe and chronic pulmonary symptoms seen in TPE [3].
Question 7: Which of the following is true about carcinoid tumor?
- A. Presentation is hypotension and diaphoresis
- B. Intestinal carcinoids are of high malignant potential
- C. Best diagnosed by elevated urinary vanillymandelic acid levels
- D. Can occur throughout the gastrointestinal tract (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Can occur throughout the gastrointestinal tract*** - Carcinoid tumors (neuroendocrine tumors) are most commonly found in the **gastrointestinal tract**, particularly in the small intestine, appendix, rectum, and stomach [2]. - They arise from **enterochromaffin cells** and can secrete various vasoactive substances. *Presentation is hypotension and diaphoresis* - The classic presentation of **carcinoid syndrome** includes episodes of **flushing**, **diarrhea**, and **bronchospasm**, often accompanied by **hypertension** rather than hypotension due to the release of serotonin and other vasoactive peptides [1]. - While diaphoresis can occur, **hypotension** is not a primary or characteristic feature. *Intestinal carcinoids are of high malignant potential* - The malignant potential of carcinoid tumors varies depending on their primary site and size but is generally considered to be of **low-to-moderate malignant potential**, particularly for appendiceal and rectal carcinoids [2]. - Liver metastases significantly increase morbidity and mortality, but many small intestinal carcinoids may grow slowly or remain localized for extended periods [1]. *Best diagnosed by elevated urinary vanillymandelic acid levels* - Elevated **urinary vanillymandellic acid (VMA)** levels are primarily used to diagnose **pheochromocytoma**, a tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes catecholamines. - Carcinoid tumors are best diagnosed by measuring **urinary 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA)**, a breakdown product of serotonin.
Question 8: Fatty liver with hepatomegaly is seen in:
- A. Marasmus
- B. Nutmeg liver
- C. Metabolic syndrome (Correct Answer)
- D. Wilson disease
Explanation: ***Metabolic syndrome*** - **Metabolic syndrome** is characterized by a cluster of conditions, including **insulin resistance**, obesity, hypertension, and dyslipidemia, which frequently lead to **non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)** and subsequent hepatomegaly [1]. - The accumulation of fat in the liver is a direct consequence of the metabolic derangements, leading to hepatic steatosis, inflammation, and potential fibrosis, with **hepatomegaly** often being a palpable clinical sign [1]. *Marasmus* - **Marasmus** is a form of severe protein-energy malnutrition characterized by significant **weight loss** and muscle wasting, but typically **does not involve fatty liver** or hepatomegaly. - In marasmus, caloric intake is severely deficient, leading to the mobilization of fat stores rather than accumulation in the liver [2]. *Nutmeg liver* - **Nutmeg liver** is a characteristic pathological finding in **congestive hepatopathy**, most often due to **right-sided heart failure**. - It results from chronic passive venous congestion, causing a mottled appearance with alternating areas of congestion and normal parenchyma, but not primarily **fatty infiltration**. *Wilson disease* - **Wilson disease** is a rare genetic disorder of **copper metabolism** that leads to excessive copper accumulation in various organs, including the liver, brain, and eyes. - While it can cause hepatomegaly and liver disease, the primary pathology is copper overload, not **fatty infiltration**, though steatosis can occur secondary to chronic liver injury. *Additional Note* - Enlargement of the liver due to fatty infiltration occurs when triacylglycerol accumulation exceeds the liver's capacity to secrete VLDL, a process seen in conditions like uncontrolled diabetes and certain metabolic stresses [2].
Question 9: Painless burn in hand is seen in:
- A. SLE
- B. Mononeuritis multiplex
- C. Diabetes mellitus
- D. Syringomyelia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Syringomyelia*** - Syringomyelia is characterized by a fluid-filled cavity (syrinx) within the **spinal cord**, which can damage nerve fibers responsible for pain and temperature sensation. - This damage leads to a **dissociated sensory loss**, where patients lose the ability to feel pain and temperature but retain touch and vibration, making them susceptible to **painless burns** or injuries. *SLE* - **Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)** is an autoimmune disease that can affect various organs, but it does not typically cause a dissociated sensory loss leading to painless burns. - Neurological manifestations in SLE are diverse, ranging from headaches to seizures, but they rarely involve selective loss of pain and temperature sensation in a way that causes painless burns. *Mononeuritis multiplex* - **Mononeuritis multiplex** involves damage to at least two distinct nerve areas, often causing pain, weakness, and sensory loss in a patchy distribution, but usually includes pain. - This condition is not typically characterized by a complete and selective loss of **pain and temperature sensation** in a way that would lead to painless burns without other significant sensory deficits. *Diabetes mellitus* - **Diabetic neuropathy** commonly causes sensory loss, often a "stocking-glove" distribution, which can lead to painless injuries due to reduced pain sensation. - However, diabetic neuropathy primarily affects **small fiber nerves** and is more generalized, unlike the more selective **dissociated sensory loss** seen in syringomyelia that specifically explains painless burns.
Question 10: Which type of anemia is seen in patients of rheumatoid arthritis?
- A. Normocytic and normochromic anemia (Correct Answer)
- B. Normocytic and hypochromic anemia
- C. Sideroblastic anemia
- D. Macrocytic anemia
Explanation: The anemia seen in **rheumatoid arthritis (RA)** is typically **anemia of chronic disease**, characterized by **normal-sized red blood cells (normocytic)** and **normal hemoglobin content (normochromic)**. This type of anemia is caused by **chronic inflammation** leading to impaired iron utilization and reduced erythropoiesis [1], [2]. This type of anemia is associated with inflammation-mediated upregulation of hepcidin [1]. Although iron deficiency can coexist in RA patients, the primary anemia of chronic disease mechanism generally results in normochromic cells [2].