Couple Therapy Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice Indian Medical PG questions for Couple Therapy. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Couple Therapy Indian Medical PG Question 1: A 23-year-old woman is diagnosed with chlamydia. Her partner refuses testing. What contact tracing approach is most appropriate?
- A. Expedited partner therapy (Correct Answer)
- B. Patient referral only
- C. Contract referral
- D. Provider referral only
Couple Therapy Explanation: ***Expedited partner therapy (EPT)***
- This approach allows clinicians to provide medication or a prescription for a partner without a prior medical examination, facilitating treatment when a partner is unwilling or unable to seek care.
- It is particularly useful for **chlamydia** and **gonorrhea** to reduce reinfection rates and further transmission.
- **Recommended by CDC and WHO** for STI partner management when partners are unlikely to present for care.
- *Note: EPT implementation varies by country; in India, partner notification with clinical evaluation is standard practice, but EPT represents the most direct approach when partners refuse testing.*
*Patient referral only*
- Relying solely on the patient to inform and encourage their partner to seek testing and treatment can be effective but carries a risk of the partner not following through, leading to continued transmission.
- This method might be less successful if the partner is uncooperative or unwilling to get tested, as is implied in this scenario.
- **Most commonly used approach** in resource-limited settings but has lower success rates.
*Contract referral*
- Involves the patient agreeing to notify their partner, with the understanding that if the partner does not present for treatment within a specified timeframe, health officials will then intervene.
- While it offers a backup, it still relies on initial patient action and may not be immediate enough when a partner is actively refusing testing.
- Provides a **safety net** but involves delays in partner treatment.
*Provider referral only*
- This method involves a healthcare provider directly contacting the partner to inform them of exposure and recommend testing and treatment, respecting patient confidentiality.
- This option is generally preferred when there are concerns about the patient's safety or if the patient is unable or unwilling to notify their partner.
- More resource-intensive and requires **trained health workers** for partner notification, but ensures partners are reached even if the index patient cannot or will not inform them.
Couple Therapy Indian Medical PG Question 2: In which of the following conditions is behavior therapy considered most effective?
- A. Panic Attack
- B. Psychosis
- C. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) (Correct Answer)
- D. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
Couple Therapy Explanation: ***Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)***
- **Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP)**, a type of behavior therapy, is the gold standard and most effective treatment for OCD.
- ERP directly targets the **obsessions** and **compulsions** by gradually exposing individuals to feared situations without allowing them to perform their rituals.
- OCD shows the **highest response rates** to pure behavior therapy compared to other psychiatric conditions.
*Psychosis*
- While supportive therapy and cognitive behavioral therapy for psychosis (CBTp) can be helpful, **behavior therapy alone is not considered the primary or most effective treatment** for core psychotic symptoms.
- Management of psychosis primarily relies on **antipsychotic medications** to address symptoms like hallucinations and delusions.
*Panic Attack*
- Behavior therapy and CBT are effective for **Panic Disorder**, but the effectiveness is somewhat lower than for OCD.
- Treatment for panic disorder often requires a **combination of behavioral and cognitive techniques** rather than pure behavior therapy alone.
- Management typically includes breathing exercises, exposure to physical sensations, and cognitive restructuring.
*Generalized Anxiety Disorder*
- **Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)**, which includes behavioral components, is highly effective for GAD, but the **cognitive elements are essential** for addressing worry and rumination.
- Pure behavior therapy (e.g., systematic desensitization) is less effective for GAD compared to OCD, as GAD involves pervasive cognitive distortions that require cognitive restructuring.
Couple Therapy Indian Medical PG Question 3: Cognitive behavior therapy deals with:
- A. Only maladaptive thoughts
- B. Thoughts and behaviors (Correct Answer)
- C. Only problematic behaviors
- D. Unconscious conflicts and past experiences
Couple Therapy Explanation: ***Thoughts and behaviors***
- **Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)** specifically targets and modifies both **maladaptive thought patterns** and **unhelpful behaviors**.
- The core principle is that feelings and behaviors are significantly influenced by how an individual thinks about themselves, others, and the world.
*Only maladaptive thoughts*
- While CBT heavily focuses on **maladaptive thoughts** (cognitions), it also directly addresses **behaviors**.
- Changing thoughts alone without addressing associated behaviors would be an incomplete therapeutic approach within CBT.
*Only problematic behaviors*
- Focusing solely on **problematic behaviors** would align more with traditional behavioral therapy.
- CBT integrates cognitive restructuring with behavioral techniques, recognizing the interplay between thoughts and actions.
*Unconscious conflicts and past experiences*
- This description is characteristic of **psychodynamic therapy** or psychoanalysis, which delve into **unconscious conflicts** and the impact of past experiences on current functioning.
- CBT is primarily present-focused and deals with conscious thought processes and current behaviors, rather than deep exploration of the unconscious.
Couple Therapy Indian Medical PG Question 4: All of the following are done in behavior therapy to increase a behavior except:
- A. Negative reinforcement
- B. Reward
- C. Punishment (Correct Answer)
- D. Positive reinforcement
Couple Therapy Explanation: ***Punishment***
- **Punishment** is designed to **decrease** an unwanted behavior by adding an aversive stimulus (positive punishment) or removing a desirable one (negative punishment).
- Unlike reinforcement, which aims to strengthen a behavior, punishment attempts to **suppress** or eliminate a behavior.
- This is the only technique listed that does NOT increase behavior.
*Negative reinforcement*
- **Negative reinforcement** involves the **removal** of an aversive stimulus to **increase** a desired behavior.
- For example, if a child cleans their room to stop their parent's nagging, cleaning is increased by the removal of the unpleasant nagging.
- Despite the word "negative," this technique **increases** behavior frequency.
*Positive reinforcement*
- **Positive reinforcement** involves **adding** a desirable stimulus after a behavior to **increase** its future occurrence.
- This is one of the most effective techniques in behavior therapy for strengthening desired behaviors.
- Examples include praise, privileges, or tangible rewards following appropriate behavior.
*Reward*
- A **reward** is essentially a type of **positive reinforcement**, where a desirable stimulus is added after a behavior to **increase** its occurrence.
- This directly incentivizes the repetition of the behavior.
- The terms "reward" and "positive reinforcement" are often used interchangeably in clinical practice.
Couple Therapy Indian Medical PG Question 5: A 25-year-old woman is diagnosed with chlamydial cervicitis. Her partner refuses evaluation and treatment. What is the most appropriate approach to partner management?
- A. Counsel patient on condom use only
- B. Withhold treatment until partner presents
- C. Provider referral through health department (Correct Answer)
- D. Expedited partner therapy
Couple Therapy Explanation: ***Provider referral through health department***
- In the **Indian context** (relevant for NEET-PG/INI-CET), when a partner refuses evaluation and treatment, **provider referral through the health department** is the most appropriate approach for partner management.
- The **National AIDS Control Organization (NACO)** and **public health departments** in India have established systems for **contact tracing and partner notification** for sexually transmitted infections.
- Health department personnel are trained to counsel and encourage partners to seek treatment while maintaining confidentiality and ensuring appropriate follow-up.
- This approach ensures that the partner receives proper evaluation, treatment, and counseling through official channels, which is the standard practice in India.
*Expedited partner therapy*
- **Expedited Partner Therapy (EPT)**, where medication is provided for the partner without clinical examination, is recommended by the **CDC in the United States** for chlamydia and gonorrhea.
- However, EPT is **not standard practice in India** and is not part of routine STI management guidelines followed in Indian medical practice.
- Indian guidelines emphasize proper partner evaluation, counseling, and treatment through healthcare facilities or health department referral systems.
*Counsel patient on condom use only*
- While **condom use** is essential for preventing future STI transmission, it does not address the current infection in the partner.
- The partner could reinfect the patient or transmit the infection to others if left untreated.
- Counseling alone is insufficient without ensuring the partner receives appropriate treatment.
*Withhold treatment until partner presents*
- Withholding treatment from the patient until the partner presents is **unethical and harmful**.
- The patient requires **immediate treatment** for her chlamydial cervicitis to prevent complications such as **pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)**, chronic pelvic pain, and infertility.
- Treatment of the index patient should never be delayed; partner management is a separate but concurrent process.
Couple Therapy Indian Medical PG Question 6: Best therapy suited to teach daily life skill to a mentally challenged child:
- A. Contingency management (Correct Answer)
- B. Cognitive reconstruction
- C. Self instruction
- D. CBT (Cognitive behavior therapy)
Couple Therapy Explanation: ***Contingency management***
- This therapy involves consistently **rewarding desired behaviors** and withholding rewards for undesirable ones, which is highly effective for teaching new skills to individuals with intellectual disabilities.
- It uses principles of **operant conditioning** to shape behavior through positive reinforcement, making it suitable for acquiring daily living skills.
*Cognitive reconstruction*
- This technique focuses on identifying and changing **maladaptive thought patterns**, which typically requires a higher level of cognitive function.
- It is generally not the primary or most effective approach for teaching concrete daily life skills to individuals with significant **cognitive limitations**.
*Self instruction*
- This involves teaching individuals to guide their own behavior using **internal verbal cues** or self-talk.
- While beneficial for some, it often requires a certain degree of **abstract thinking** and memory, making it less suitable as a standalone method for those with profound cognitive challenges in acquiring basic skills.
*CBT (Cognitive behavior therapy)*
- CBT integrates cognitive and behavioral strategies to address emotional and behavioral problems by modifying **thoughts, feelings, and behaviors**.
- While beneficial for a range of psychological issues, its emphasis on **cognitive restructuring** makes it less directly applicable or the most effective first-line therapy for teaching concrete, functional daily living skills to mentally challenged children.
Couple Therapy Indian Medical PG Question 7: Systematic desensitization is a therapeutic technique used in which of the following conditions?
- A. Dissociation
- B. Phobia (Correct Answer)
- C. Schizoid personality
- D. Psychosis
Couple Therapy Explanation: **Explanation:**
**Systematic Desensitization** is a behavioral therapy technique developed by **Joseph Wolpe**, based on the principle of **Classical Conditioning** (specifically **Reciprocal Inhibition**). The core concept is that a person cannot be anxious and relaxed at the same time. It involves three steps: training in deep muscle relaxation (Jacobson’s Progressive Muscle Relaxation), constructing a hierarchy of anxiety-provoking stimuli, and gradual exposure to these stimuli while maintaining a relaxed state.
* **Why Phobia is Correct:** Systematic desensitization is the treatment of choice for **Specific Phobias** (e.g., fear of heights, spiders). By pairing the feared object with relaxation, the "anxiety response" is replaced by a "relaxation response" (Counter-conditioning).
**Analysis of Incorrect Options:**
* **Dissociation:** Managed primarily through supportive psychotherapy, hypnosis, or "Amobarbital interviews" to recover repressed memories, rather than behavioral conditioning.
* **Schizoid Personality:** This is a personality disorder characterized by social detachment. Treatment focuses on social skills training or supportive therapy; desensitization is ineffective as there is no specific phobic stimulus.
* **Psychosis:** Conditions like Schizophrenia require pharmacotherapy (Antipsychotics). Behavioral therapies are used only for social rehabilitation, not for treating core psychotic symptoms.
**High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:**
* **Founder:** Joseph Wolpe.
* **Basis:** Reciprocal Inhibition / Counter-conditioning.
* **Hierarchy:** Uses the **SUD scale** (Subjective Units of Distress) to rank fears.
* **In-vivo vs. Imaginal:** While Wolpe used imaginal exposure, **In-vivo exposure** (real-life) is now considered more effective for most phobias.
* **Flooding:** A related technique where the patient is exposed to the maximum intensity of the feared stimulus immediately (preventing the avoidance response).
Couple Therapy Indian Medical PG Question 8: What are the indications for Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)?
- A. Paranoid schizophrenia
- B. Depression with suicidal tendency (Correct Answer)
- C. Neurotic depression
- D. All of the above
Couple Therapy Explanation: **Explanation:**
Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) is a biological treatment involving the induction of a generalized seizure through electrical stimulation. In modern psychiatry, the primary indication for ECT is when a **rapid clinical response** is required or when pharmacological treatments have failed.
**Why Option B is Correct:**
Severe **Depression with suicidal tendency** is the absolute first-line indication for ECT. When a patient is actively suicidal, the 2–4 week lag period of antidepressants is too risky. ECT provides the fastest reduction in depressive symptoms and suicidal ideation, making it a life-saving intervention in emergency psychiatry. Other major indications include severe catatonia and treatment-resistant mania.
**Why Other Options are Incorrect:**
* **A. Paranoid Schizophrenia:** While ECT can be used as an adjunct in schizophrenia (especially if catatonic or affective symptoms are present), it is not the primary or first-line treatment. Antipsychotics remain the mainstay.
* **C. Neurotic Depression:** Also known as Dysthymia or Persistent Depressive Disorder, this condition is characterized by low-grade, chronic symptoms often linked to personality and psychosocial stressors. It responds better to psychotherapy and SSRIs; ECT is generally ineffective for non-psychotic, neurotic-level depression.
**High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:**
* **Most common side effect:** Retrograde amnesia (usually resolves).
* **Absolute Contraindication:** There are no absolute contraindications, but **Increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP)** is the most significant relative contraindication due to the risk of brain herniation.
* **Modified ECT:** Involves the use of an anesthetic (Thiopental/Propofol) and a muscle relaxant (**Succinylcholine**) to prevent bone fractures.
* **Electrode Placement:** Bilateral (Gold standard for efficacy) vs. Unilateral (Lower cognitive side effects).
Couple Therapy Indian Medical PG Question 9: A child who wins the first prize in school is given chocolates that he likes. He tends to get high marks in the future. This scenario best illustrates which line of therapy?
- A. Interpersonal therapy
- B. Behavior therapy (Correct Answer)
- C. Dialectic therapy
- D. Dynamic therapy
Couple Therapy Explanation: ### Explanation
The scenario described is a classic example of **Operant Conditioning**, a core principle of **Behavior Therapy**.
**Why Behavior Therapy is Correct:**
The child’s behavior (studying hard/winning a prize) is followed by a rewarding stimulus (chocolates). This is known as **Positive Reinforcement**. According to B.F. Skinner’s theory of Operant Conditioning, when a behavior is followed by a desirable consequence, the probability of that behavior being repeated in the future increases. Behavior therapy focuses on modifying observable actions through reinforcement, punishment, or extinction.
**Analysis of Incorrect Options:**
* **A. Interpersonal Therapy (IPT):** Focuses on improving current interpersonal relationships and social functioning to resolve symptoms (commonly used in depression). It does not use reward-based conditioning.
* **C. Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT):** A specific type of CBT used primarily for Borderline Personality Disorder. it focuses on emotional regulation, distress tolerance, and mindfulness.
* **D. Dynamic Therapy:** Based on Psychoanalysis (Freud), it explores unconscious conflicts, childhood experiences, and defense mechanisms rather than focusing on immediate behavioral modification through rewards.
**High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:**
* **Positive Reinforcement:** Adding a pleasant stimulus to increase behavior (e.g., chocolates for high marks).
* **Negative Reinforcement:** Removing an unpleasant stimulus to increase behavior (e.g., taking an aspirin to remove a headache).
* **Token Economy:** A specialized form of behavior therapy often used in psychiatric wards where patients earn "tokens" (secondary reinforcers) for desired behaviors, which can be exchanged for rewards.
* **Systematic Desensitization:** Another behavior therapy technique based on *Classical Conditioning* (Wolpe) used for phobias.
Couple Therapy Indian Medical PG Question 10: Which conditioning principle can be used to remove many of our day-to-day bad habits?
- A. Positive conditioning
- B. Negative conditioning (Correct Answer)
- C. Biofeedback
- D. Generalization
Couple Therapy Explanation: **Explanation:**
The correct answer is **Negative Conditioning** (often referred to in behavioral therapy as **Aversion Therapy**).
**1. Why Negative Conditioning is Correct:**
Negative conditioning involves the association of an undesirable habit with an unpleasant or painful stimulus. In the context of behavioral modification, this is based on **Classical Conditioning** principles. When a "bad habit" (the conditioned stimulus) is repeatedly paired with an aversive stimulus (like a mild electric shock, a bitter taste, or an emetic drug), the individual develops an association between the habit and the unpleasant sensation. Eventually, the habit itself triggers a feeling of aversion, leading to its cessation. This is a standard technique used to treat habits like nail-biting, smoking, or alcohol dependence (e.g., using Disulfiram).
**2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:**
* **Positive Conditioning:** This involves reinforcing a behavior by providing a reward. While useful for building *new* healthy habits, it is generally less effective than aversion for rapidly *removing* deep-seated maladaptive behaviors.
* **Biofeedback:** This is a technique where patients learn to control involuntary physiological functions (like heart rate or muscle tension) using visual or auditory feedback. It is primarily used for stress, migraine, and hypertension, not for breaking general bad habits.
* **Generalization:** This is a learning phenomenon where a response conditioned to one stimulus is elicited by similar stimuli. It is a process of learning, not a therapeutic technique for habit reversal.
**Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:**
* **Aversion Therapy** is a classic example of **Counter-conditioning**.
* **Disulfiram (Antabuse)** therapy for alcohol use disorder is the most common clinical application of aversion conditioning.
* **Covert Sensitization** is a variation where the aversive stimulus is merely imagined (e.g., imagining vomiting while thinking of a cigarette).
More Couple Therapy Indian Medical PG questions available in the OnCourse app. Practice MCQs, flashcards, and get detailed explanations.
