Pelvic Inflammatory Disease Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice Indian Medical PG questions for Pelvic Inflammatory Disease. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease Indian Medical PG Question 1: A 30-year-old woman presents with vaginal discharge and lower abdominal pain for 10 days. Examination reveals cervical motion tenderness and adnexal tenderness. Laboratory tests show elevated WBC count. What is the most appropriate initial antibiotic regimen?
- A. Ceftriaxone plus doxycycline (Correct Answer)
- B. Doxycycline plus metronidazole
- C. Azithromycin plus metronidazole
- D. Ciprofloxacin plus clindamycin
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease Explanation: ***Ceftriaxone plus doxycycline***
- This combination provides broad-spectrum coverage against common causative agents of **Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)**, including *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* (covered by ceftriaxone) and *Chlamydia trachomatis* (covered by doxycycline).
- The patient's symptoms of vaginal discharge, lower abdominal pain, cervical motion tenderness, adnexal tenderness, and elevated WBC count are highly suggestive of PID, necessitating empiric treatment for these infections.
*Doxycycline plus metronidazole*
- While doxycycline is effective against *Chlamydia trachomatis*, metronidazole primarily targets **anaerobic bacteria** and *Trichomonas vaginalis*.
- This regimen lacks adequate coverage for **gonococcal infections**, which are a significant cause of PID and require a cephalosporin.
*Azithromycin plus metronidazole*
- Azithromycin can treat *Chlamydia trachomatis*, but it has **inferior efficacy against gonococcal infections** compared to ceftriaxone.
- Metronidazole, as mentioned, addresses anaerobic bacteria but doesn't provide the necessary broad coverage for other common PID pathogens.
*Ciprofloxacin plus clindamycin*
- Ciprofloxacin has declining efficacy against **gonorrhea** due to increasing resistance and is generally not recommended as first-line therapy for PID without susceptibility testing.
- Clindamycin primarily covers anaerobic bacteria and some gram-positive organisms but does not adequately target *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* or *Chlamydia trachomatis*.
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease Indian Medical PG Question 2: Endosalpingitis is best diagnosed by?
- A. laparoscopy (Correct Answer)
- B. X-Ray abdomen
- C. Hysterosalpingography
- D. Hystero-laparoscopy
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease Explanation: ***Laparoscopy***
- **Laparoscopy** is the **gold standard** for diagnosing endosalpingitis as it allows direct visualization of the fallopian tubes, pelvic organs, and peritoneal cavity.
- It enables identification of **inflammation, adhesions, tubal edema, and purulent exudate** characteristic of endosalpingitis.
- It also permits **tissue sampling** for histopathological confirmation and culture of infectious agents.
- Laparoscopy has high sensitivity and specificity for diagnosing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and its complications.
*X-Ray abdomen*
- An **X-ray abdomen** provides limited information regarding soft tissue structures like the fallopian tubes.
- It is primarily used for visualizing bones or detecting gross abnormalities like bowel obstruction or free air.
- It **cannot directly diagnose endosalpingitis** or provide detailed images of adnexal structures.
*Hysterosalpingography*
- **Hysterosalpingography (HSG)** is an imaging technique used to assess the patency and contour of the fallopian tubes and uterine cavity by injecting contrast dye.
- While it can detect **tubal occlusion or hydrosalpinx**, it cannot visualize external tubal inflammation, adhesions, or the peritoneal surface.
- HSG is more useful for evaluating **tubal patency in infertility workup** rather than diagnosing acute inflammation.
*Hystero-laparoscopy*
- This term refers to **combined hysteroscopy and laparoscopy** performed together.
- While the laparoscopic component can diagnose endosalpingitis, **hysteroscopy** (visualization of the uterine cavity) adds no additional value for diagnosing tubal inflammation.
- For endosalpingitis specifically, **laparoscopy alone** is sufficient and is the most direct diagnostic approach.
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease Indian Medical PG Question 3: A 24-year-old woman presents with vaginal discharge, dysuria, and lower abdominal pain. On examination, there is cervical motion tenderness and mucopurulent cervical discharge. What is the diagnostic test of choice?
- A. Culture on modified Thayer-Martin medium
- B. Wet mount examination
- C. Gram stain of cervical secretions
- D. Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) (Correct Answer)
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease Explanation: ***Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)***
- NAATs are the **most sensitive and specific** tests for detecting *Chlamydia trachomatis* and *Neisseria gonorrhoeae*, common causes of cervicitis, which is suggested by the patient's symptoms (vaginal discharge, dysuria, lower abdominal pain, cervical motion tenderness, mucopurulent discharge).
- They can be performed on **non-invasive samples** (e.g., urine, vaginal swabs), making them convenient and preferred for screening and diagnosis.
*Culture on modified Thayer-Martin medium*
- While **gonococcal culture** on modified Thayer-Martin medium is a specific test, it has **lower sensitivity** compared to NAATs and is more labor-intensive.
- It is often reserved for cases where **antibiotic resistance testing** is needed or when NAATs are unavailable.
*Wet mount examination*
- A **wet mount** can identify motile trichomonads (*Trichomonas vaginalis*), yeast (candidiasis), and clue cells (bacterial vaginosis).
- However, it **does not diagnose cervicitis** caused by *Chlamydia* or *Gonorrhea*, which are strongly suspected given the cervical motion tenderness and mucopurulent discharge.
*Gram stain of cervical secretions*
- A **Gram stain** can identify gram-negative intracellular diplococci suggestive of **gonorrhea**, but its **sensitivity is variable** in women, especially in asymptomatic cases, and it cannot detect chlamydia.
- It is **insufficient for definitive diagnosis** of chlamydial infection or as a sole diagnostic tool for gonorrhea due to its lower sensitivity compared to NAATs.
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease Indian Medical PG Question 4: A teenage patient presents with dysmenorrhea and chronic pelvic pain. Upon further investigation, she is found to have a transverse vaginal septum. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Dermoid cyst
- B. Tubo-ovarian abscess
- C. Endometriosis (Correct Answer)
- D. Hematocolpos/Hematometra
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease Explanation: ***Endometriosis***
- This condition is characterized by the presence of **endometrial-like tissue outside the uterus**, which responds to hormonal changes, leading to chronic pelvic pain and dysmenorrhea.
- While a transverse vaginal septum isn't a direct cause of endometriosis, this presentation of chronic pain and dysmenorrhea in a teenager strongly suggests endometriosis, and the septum might be an incidental finding or a contributing factor to pain due to outflow obstruction in some cases.
*Dermoid cyst*
- A dermoid cyst (mature cystic teratoma) is a benign ovarian tumor that typically causes pelvic pain due to its size or torsion, and it does not usually cause dysmenorrhea.
- It would not be directly associated with the presence of a transverse vaginal septum.
*Tubo-ovarian abscess*
- A tubo-ovarian abscess is an inflammatory mass involving the fallopian tube and ovary, typically presenting with acute-onset severe pelvic pain, fever, and leukocytosis.
- While it causes pelvic pain, it is usually acute and infectious in nature, and not inherently linked to dysmenorrhea or a transverse vaginal septum.
*Hematocolpos/Hematometra*
- **Hematocolpos** (blood in the vagina) or **hematometra** (blood in the uterus) results from an outflow obstruction, such as an imperforate hymen or a transverse vaginal septum.
- While a transverse vaginal septum could lead to hematocolpos, the primary symptoms would be cyclical abdominal pain progressing from menarche, an abdominal mass, and **amenorrhea** (absence of menstruation), rather than dysmenorrhea (painful menstruation) which implies some menstrual flow.
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease Indian Medical PG Question 5: Violin string adhesion is seen in ?
- A. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
- B. Endometriosis
- C. PCOS
- D. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome (Correct Answer)
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease Explanation: ***Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome***
- **Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome** is a perihepatitis characterized by inflammation of the liver capsule and adjacent peritoneal surfaces.
- The classic "violin string" adhesions are **fibrinous adhesions** that form between the liver capsule and the anterior abdominal wall or diaphragm.
*Ruptured ectopic pregnancy*
- A ruptured ectopic pregnancy typically presents with acute abdominal pain and **hypovolemic shock** due to hemoperitoneum.
- While it can cause pelvic adhesions, "violin string" adhesions are not a characteristic finding; the primary concern is **intra-abdominal hemorrhage**.
*Endometriosis*
- **Endometriosis** involves the presence of endometrial-like tissue outside the uterus, causing pain, inflammation, and adhesions, especially in the pelvis.
- While it does lead to adhesions, these are usually **dense and diffuse pelvic adhesions**, not the specific "violin string" pattern associated with the liver capsule.
*PCOS*
- **Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)** is an endocrine disorder characterized by hormonal imbalances, anovulation, and polycystic ovaries.
- It primarily affects **ovarian function** and metabolism and does not directly cause adhesions in the abdominal cavity.
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease Indian Medical PG Question 6: Treatment of partner is required in all infection except:
- A. Trichomonas
- B. Herpes
- C. Gardnerella (Correct Answer)
- D. Candida
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease Explanation: ***Gardnerella***
- **Gardnerella vaginalis** is a common inhabitant of the vaginal flora and its overgrowth causes **bacterial vaginosis**, which is not typically considered a sexually transmitted infection (STI) in the same way others are.
- While it can be transmitted sexually, treating the male partner has not been shown to prevent recurrence in the female; therefore, routine **partner treatment is generally not recommended**.
*Trichomonas*
- **Trichomoniasis** is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the parasite **Trichomonas vaginalis**. [1]
- **Partner treatment is essential** to prevent reinfection and interrupt the cycle of transmission, as asymptomatic infection is common. [1]
*Herpes*
- **Genital herpes** is caused by the **Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)** and is highly transmissible sexually. [2]
- While treatment often focuses on managing symptoms in the infected individual, open communication and potential treatment or counseling for partners are crucial to prevent transmission and manage outbreaks.
*Candida*
- **Candidiasis** (yeast infection) is typically caused by an overgrowth of **Candida albicans**, a fungus naturally present in the body.
- While it is not strictly an STI, sexual activity can sometimes trigger or exacerbate symptoms, and in recurrent cases, treating a male partner might be considered, but **it's not routinely required** as it is for true STIs like trichomonas or chlamydia. [2]
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease Indian Medical PG Question 7: A patient has dyspareunia, and dysmenorrhea with adnexal tenderness. What is the first step of investigation?
- A. Colposcopy
- B. Diagnostic laparoscopy
- C. Transvaginal USG (Correct Answer)
- D. Transabdominal pelvic ultrasound
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease Explanation: ***Transvaginal USG***
- This is the **first-line investigation** for evaluating pelvic pain, dyspareunia, dysmenorrhea, and adnexal tenderness due to its ability to provide **high-resolution images** of the uterus, ovaries, and surrounding structures to identify potential pathology like **endometriomas** or other adnexal masses.
- It allows for detailed assessment of **ovarian cysts**, fibroids, and other pelvic abnormalities, which can explain the patient's symptoms.
*Colposcopy*
- This procedure is primarily used to closely examine the **cervix, vagina, and vulva** for abnormal cells, often following an abnormal Pap test.
- It is not the initial step for investigating generalized pelvic pain, dyspareunia, or adnexal tenderness.
*Diagnostic laparoscopy*
- While a **diagnostic laparoscopy** can provide a definitive diagnosis for conditions like **endometriosis**, it is an **invasive surgical procedure** and typically reserved for cases where non-invasive imaging, such as transvaginal ultrasound, has not yielded a clear diagnosis or when conservative management has failed.
- It is not considered the first-step investigation due to its **invasive nature** and associated risks.
*Transabdominal pelvic ultrasound*
- A **transabdominal pelvic ultrasound** provides a broader view of the pelvic organs but often has **lower resolution** and is less accurate for detailed assessment of the uterus, ovaries, and adnexa compared to transvaginal ultrasound, especially in obese patients.
- It is often used if a transvaginal ultrasound is not feasible or for assessing larger pelvic masses, but the **transvaginal approach** is superior for detailed evaluation of the female reproductive organs.
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease Indian Medical PG Question 8: Which of the following reduces the risk of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
- A. Copper T IUCD
- B. TODAY vaginal sponge
- C. Spermicidal agents
- D. Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) (Correct Answer)
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease Explanation: ***Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs)***
- OCPs **thicken cervical mucus**, which creates a barrier that can prevent the ascent of bacteria from the vagina into the upper reproductive tract.
- This cervical mucus barrier reduces the risk of cervical infection spreading to the uterus and fallopian tubes, thereby **lowering the incidence of PID**.
*Copper T IUCD*
- The Copper T IUCD is associated with a **slightly increased risk of PID** in the first few weeks after insertion, especially in women with pre-existing sexually transmitted infections (STIs).
- It does not offer protection against ascending infections and can potentially facilitate their spread if the cervical barrier is compromised.
*TODAY vaginal sponge*
- The TODAY vaginal sponge contains **spermicide and acts as a barrier contraceptive**, but it does not protect against STIs, which are the primary cause of PID.
- Some studies suggest that spermicides can **irritate vaginal mucosa**, potentially increasing susceptibility to certain infections.
*Spermicidal agents*
- Spermicidal agents primarily work by **immobilizing and killing sperm** to prevent pregnancy.
- They **do not protect against STIs** and, in some cases, frequent use can cause vaginal and cervical irritation, potentially making the user more vulnerable to infections that can lead to PID.
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease Indian Medical PG Question 9: Which of the following is not a complication of pelvic inflammatory disease?
- A. Ectopic
- B. Pyometra (Correct Answer)
- C. Endometritis
- D. Infertility
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease Explanation: ***Pyometra***
- **Pyometra** is a collection of pus in the uterine cavity, typically caused by cervical stenosis (from surgery, radiation, or postmenopausal atrophy) or cervical malignancy, and is **not a recognized complication of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)**.
- While PID involves ascending infection causing **endometritis** (inflammation of the endometrial lining), it does not typically lead to pyometra, which requires obstruction at the cervical level.
- Pyometra is not listed among standard PID complications in major obstetrics and gynecology textbooks.
*Ectopic pregnancy*
- **Ectopic pregnancy** is a well-recognized complication of PID due to damage and scarring of the **fallopian tubes**, which impairs the normal transit of a fertilized egg to the uterus.
- The inflammation and adhesions caused by PID create an environment that can trap the embryo outside the uterus, most commonly in the fallopian tube.
- Risk of ectopic pregnancy increases 6-10 fold after PID.
*Infertility*
- **Infertility** is a common long-term consequence of PID, resulting from scarring and damage to the fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding structures.
- Tubal factor infertility occurs in approximately 10-20% of women after one episode of PID, with the risk increasing with recurrent infections.
- This damage can obstruct the passage of eggs and sperm, or impair tubal function necessary for conception.
*Endometritis*
- **Endometritis** is an inflammation of the lining of the uterus and is a **direct component** of PID, not just a complication.
- PID involves the ascension of infection from the cervix through the endometrium to the fallopian tubes and potentially to the ovaries and peritoneum.
- Endometritis represents the uterine involvement in the spectrum of upper genital tract infection that defines PID.
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease Indian Medical PG Question 10: Fitz‐Hugh‐Curtis syndrome involving perihepatitis is present in the following:
- A. Syphilis
- B. Tuberculosis
- C. Moniliasis
- D. Gonorrhoea (Correct Answer)
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease Explanation: **Gonorrhoea**
- **Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome** is a complication of **pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)**, which is predominantly caused by sexually transmitted infections like *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* and *Chlamydia trachomatis*.
- Perihepatitis, or inflammation of the liver capsule, occurs when bacteria from the pelvic infection spread to the liver surface.
*Syphilis*
- **Syphilis** primarily presents with chancres, rashes, and neurological or cardiovascular complications in later stages.
- It does not typically cause **perihepatitis** as a direct complication of the infection itself.
*Tuberculosis*
- **Tuberculosis** is caused by *Mycobacterium tuberculosis* and usually affects the lungs, but can spread to other organs.
- While it can cause peritonitis, it is not associated with **perihepatitis** in the context of **Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome**.
*Moniliasis*
- **Moniliasis** (candidiasis) is a fungal infection caused by *Candida* species.
- It is commonly associated with vaginal yeast infections or thrush but does not cause **Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome** or perihepatitis.
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