Orthopaedics & MSK — Flashcards

What is the likely diagnosis in a 25-year-old man who presents with an inversion injury of his right ankle that occurred during a basketball game? His ankle is swollen, but he is able to bear weight and has no focal tenderness or ligament laxity. _____

Bursitis are classified as _____ or septic

_____ can present with muscle pain, tenderness, swelling, & weakness following overstretching, overuse, or sudden forcement movement affecting the muscle or tendon

Hint: sprains/strains

_____ function by ↓ friction and acts as a cushion between bones, tendons, muscles, or skin during movement

What is the management for low ankle sprains? _____ NSAIDs

Ankle sprains are classified into _____, lateral low, & medial low ankle sprains based on location

Septic bursitis of superficial bursae is often due to _____, and deep bursae is often due to iatrogenic trauma

In the most common sprain of the anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (high ankle sprain), _____ rotation forces the talus to rotate laterally and push the fibula away from the tibia

What is the single most important risk factor for sustaining a sprain or strain?

What is the initial self-management for minor sprains or strains? _____