Neurology — Flashcards
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What condition would anticholinergic medication be contraindicated for urgency incontinence _____
Which of the Parkinsons drugs are associated with the greatest improvement in symptoms _____
_____ can be elevated in malignant syndrome due to to muscle rigidity
What is the most important side effect of Levodopa _____
The tremor seen in Parkinson's disease is a _____ that improves with voluntary movement
Bromocriptine, Ropinirole, Cabergoline and Apomorphine are examples of _____
Symptoms of Parkinson's Disease will prompt a _____ referral to neurology
Extrapyradimal effects of Metoclopramide use is risk of _____
Patient with a spinal cord injury develops severe hypertension & found to have a full bladder indicates _____
TIAs _____ cause a loss of consciousness
Hint: do/do not
Neurology UK Medical PG Flashcards - Medical Study Cards
Master Neurology with OnCourse flashcards. These spaced repetition flashcards are designed for medical students preparing for NEET PG, USMLE Step 1, USMLE Step 2, MBBS exams, and other medical licensing examinations.
Neurology Flashcard Deck - 758 Cards
Flashcard 1: What condition would anticholinergic medication be contraindicated for urgency incontinence _____
Answer: Myasthenia Gravis
Flashcard 2: Which of the Parkinsons drugs are associated with the greatest improvement in symptoms _____
Answer: Levodopa
Flashcard 3: _____ can be elevated in malignant syndrome due to to muscle rigidity
Answer: CK
Flashcard 4: What is the most important side effect of Levodopa _____
Answer: postural hypotension
Flashcard 5: The tremor seen in Parkinson's disease is a _____ that improves with voluntary movement
Answer: unilateral tremor
Flashcard 6: Bromocriptine, Ropinirole, Cabergoline and Apomorphine are examples of _____
Answer: dopamine agonist
Flashcard 7: Symptoms of Parkinson's Disease will prompt a _____ referral to neurology
Answer: prompt
Flashcard 8: Extrapyradimal effects of Metoclopramide use is risk of _____
Answer: Acute Dystonia
Flashcard 9: Patient with a spinal cord injury develops severe hypertension & found to have a full bladder indicates _____
Answer: Autonomic Dysreflexia
Flashcard 10: TIAs _____ cause a loss of consciousness
Answer: do
Flashcard 11: Focal Seizures not responding to first-line Levetiracetam what is next? _____
Answer: Lamotrigine
Flashcard 12: A Extradural Haematoma appears as a _____ hyperdense collection on imaging
Answer: biconvex (or lentiform)
Flashcard 13: Horner's Syndrome in Lateral Medullary (Wallenburgs) presents with ipsilateral, _____
Answer: ptosis, miosis, anhydrosis
Flashcard 14: _____ is a symptom of PCA stroke where there is the impairment of in recongition of visually presented objects
Answer: Visual Agnosia
Flashcard 15: Motor Response in GCS scores for: _____ 5 - Localised to Pain 4 - Withdraws from Pain 3 - Abnormal flexion to Pain (decorticate posture) 2 - Extending to Pain (Decerebrate posture) 1 - None
Answer: 6 - Obeys Commands
Flashcard 16: Nerve conduction studies in Guillain-Barre syndrome may show _____
Answer: decreased motor nerve conduction velocity
Flashcard 17: Lateral Medullary Syndrome can also present with _____
Answer: ataxia,nystagmus
Flashcard 18: There may be cranial nerve involvement in Guillian-Bare causing _____ bilateral facial nerve palsy oropharyngeal weakness
Answer: diplopia
Flashcard 19: Middle Cerebral Artery Strokes can cause _____ because it supplies optic radiations in the temporal and parietal lobes
Answer: contralateral homonyous hemianopia
Flashcard 20: _____ is a variation of Guillian-Bare Syndrome
Answer: Miller Fisher syndrome
Flashcard 21: There may also be autonomic involvment in Guillian-Barre causing _____ & diarrhoea
Answer: urinary retention
Flashcard 22: TIA mimics that require exclusion are _____ and intracranial haemorrhage
Answer: hypoglycaemia
Flashcard 23: Sodium valproate is a P450 _____
Answer: Inhibitor
Flashcard 24: Sodium valproate can cause _____ where regrowth might be curly
Answer: alopecia
Flashcard 25: LP findings in Guillain-Barre syndrome shows _____
Answer: raised protein with a normal white blood cell count
Flashcard 26: Guillian-Barre syndrome describes a _____
Answer: demyelination of the peripheral nervous system
Flashcard 27: Sodium Valproate should not be started for the first time in _____
Answer: male/female younger than 55 years
Flashcard 28: Lateral Medullary (Walleburg's Syndrome) PICA occlusion, can cause Horner's Syndrome due to _____
Answer: damage of the descending sympathetic nerve fibres
Flashcard 29: In the inital stages of Guillian-Bare _____ pain is the the initial symptoms
Answer: back/leg
Flashcard 30: _____ may also be performed in Guillain-Barre syndrome
Answer: Nerve conduction studies
Flashcard 31: Neuropathic pain arises following _____
Answer: damage or disruption of the nervous system
Flashcard 32: Carotid endarterectomy performed on the carotid cartery _____ to the symptoms
Answer: contralateral
Flashcard 33: _____ if the GCS is less than 8
Answer: Intubate
Flashcard 34: _____ should be used for localised neuropathic pain e.g. post-herpetic neuralgia
Answer: Topical Capsacin
Flashcard 35: Sodium valproate is used in the management of _____
Answer: epilepsy
Flashcard 36: There may be a history of _____ in Guillian-Bare syndrome
Answer: gastroenteritis
Flashcard 37: Guilian-Barre is often triggered by an infection classically _____
Answer: Campylobacter jejuni
Flashcard 38: _____ is a serious adverse effect of Sodium Valproate, characterised by elevated serum ammonia levels
Answer: Hyperammonemic Encephalopathy
Flashcard 39: Reflexes are _____ in Guillain-Barre syndrome
Answer: reduced or absent
Flashcard 40: Sodium valproate is teratogenic causing _____ and maternal used is associated with significant risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children
Answer: neural tube defects
Flashcard 41: First-line treatment of neuropathic pain includes _____
Answer: Amitriptyline Duloxetine Gabapentin Pregablin
Flashcard 42: The characteristic features of Guillian-Bare syndrome is _____
Answer: progressive, ascending ,symmetrical weakness of all the limbs
Flashcard 43: Causes of Neuropathic Pain include: _____
Answer: diabetic neuropathy post-herpetic neuralgia trigeminal neuralgia prolapsed intervetebral disc
Flashcard 44: _____ may be used as treatment if Hyperammonemic Encephalopathy develops in Sodium Valproate Use
Answer: L-carnitine
Flashcard 45: _____ tend to be mild in Guillain-Barre syndrome
Answer: sensory symptoms
Flashcard 46: Verbal Response in GCS scores for: _____ 4 - Confused 3 - Words 2 - Sounds 1 - None
Answer: 5 - Orientated
Flashcard 47: There may be _____ weakness in Guillian-Barre
Answer: respiratory muscle
Flashcard 48: Drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as _____ in contrast to standard analgesia
Answer: monotherapy
Flashcard 49: Nueromuscular blocking drugs (NMBDs) such as _____ can precipitate MG as it further impairs neuromuscular transmission
Answer: Suxamethonium
Flashcard 50: Neurological side-effects of Sodium valproate include _____
Answer: ataxia and tremor
Flashcard 51: The conversion of oral morphine to subcutaneous morphine is _____
Answer: divide by 2
Flashcard 52: Sodium valproate works by _____
Answer: increasing GABA activity
Flashcard 53: The 'lucid interval' describes the _____ with an Extradural Haematoma
Answer: brief regain in consciousness
Flashcard 54: TIA can present with sudden _____
Answer: transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax)
Flashcard 55: Miller Fisher syndrome is associate with _____
Answer: opthalmoplegia, areflexia and ataxia
Flashcard 56: Eye Opening in GCS scores for: _____ 3 - To Speech 2 - To Pain 1 - None
Answer: 4 - Spontaneous
Flashcard 57: _____ is used first-line for trigeminal neuralgia
Answer: Carbamazepine
Flashcard 58: Main investigation for Guillain-Barre syndrome is _____
Answer: Lumbar Puncture
Flashcard 59: 2nd Line Antiplatelet therapy in TIA and Ischaemic Stroke _____
Answer: Aspirin (lifelong) & dipyridamole (lifelong)
Flashcard 60: What Neurological Differentials could cause Falls? 2
Answer: • Stroke • Peripheral Neuropathy
Flashcard 61: Following a stroke or TIA it is very important to exclude a _____ before starting any anticoagulation or antiplatelet therapy
Answer: haemorrhage
Flashcard 62: Following a TIA, anticoagulation for AF should start _____ once imaging has excluded haemorrhage
Answer: immediately
Flashcard 63: What other medications can lead to falls via other mechanisms? 7
Answer: • Benzodiazepines • Antipsychotics • Opiates • Anticonvulsants • Codeine • Digoxin • Other sedative agents
Flashcard 64: Is Aspiration common in neurological injury?
Answer: • Yes
Flashcard 65: Hypophonia, Weakness of Facial Muscles and Hanging Jaw Sign, diagnosis?
Answer: • Myasthenia gravis
Flashcard 66: fb0f5eff218749e698e82961e0b226e6-oa-6
Answer:
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Flashcard 68: What are examples of Lower Motor Neurone Signs?
Answer: • Muscle weakness and wasting • Fasciculations
Flashcard 69: fb0f5eff218749e698e82961e0b226e6-oa-3
Answer:
Flashcard 70: What type of tumour is associated with myasthenia gravis?
Answer: • Thymomas
Flashcard 71: 2f571e47bc5e41dfba13c199e00f3445-ao-4
Answer:
Flashcard 72: What are examples of Upper Motor Neurone Signs?
Answer: • Spasticity: increased muscle tone • Hyperreflexia: exaggerated reflexes, Babinski
Flashcard 73: What differentiates Idiopathic Parkinson's and drug-induced Parkinsons?
Answer: • Asymmetrical symptoms = idioapthic • Symmetrical = drug-induced
Flashcard 74: What is syringomyelia associated with?
Answer: • Loss of temperature sensation in the hands
Flashcard 75: What should be started in cases of suspected encephalitis?
Answer: • IV aciclovir
Flashcard 76: What can mixed Upper Motor Nerone, and Lower Motor Neurone signs suggest?
Answer: • MND ALS
Flashcard 77: Patient presents with arm weakness, and diplopia near the end of day, diagnosis?
Answer: • Myasthenia gravis *muscles fatigability
Flashcard 78: Where would Webers Test lateralise in Sensorineural hearing loss?
Answer: • Lateralises to the unaffected ear
Flashcard 79: What can optic neuritis be a feature of?
Answer: • Multiple sclerosis
Flashcard 80: What is first-line treatment in diabetic neuropathy?
Answer: • Amitriptyline • Duloxetine • Gabapentin • Pregabalin
Flashcard 81: What medication should be offered for patients with newly diagnosed Parkinson's who have motor symptoms affecting their quality of life?
Answer: • Levodopa
Flashcard 82: What is the long term antiplatelet therapy in TIA?
Answer: • clopidogrel
Flashcard 83: What is Meralgia Parasthetica?
Answer: • Pain in the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh distribution
Flashcard 84: What types of nerves does Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease affect?
Answer: Motor and sensory peripheral nerves
Flashcard 85: Where would Weber's Test lateralise in Conductive hearing loss?
Answer: • Lateralises to the affected ear
Flashcard 86: How long can patients not drive for, following a first unprovoked or isolated seizure if brain imaging and EEG are normal?
Answer: • 6 months
Flashcard 87: What should all patients with Bell's palsy be given within 72 hours of onset?
Answer: • Oral Prednisolone
Flashcard 88: Features of an S1 nerve root lesion?
Answer: - Sensory loss of posterolateral leg and lateral foot - weakness in plantar flexion - reduced ankle reflex - positive sciatic stretch test
Flashcard 89: What neurological condition should be suspected when fasciculations are observed?
Answer: MND
Flashcard 90: What is first-line treatment in trigeminal neuralgia?
Answer: • Carbamazepine 100mg BD
Flashcard 91: • If neither second-line drugs work in Focal seizures try?
Answer: • Carbamazepine
Flashcard 92: Which condition is associated with a diminished response to repetitive stimulation on EMG?
Answer: • Myasthenia Gravis
Flashcard 93: Preferred antiplatelet for secondary prevention following stroke?
Answer: Clopidogrel
Flashcard 94: What does Rinne's Test Positive mean?
Answer: • Air conduction > Bone conduction • Indicated normal or sensorineural hearing loss, not conductive
Flashcard 95: Why is a decarboxylase inhibitor given with levodopa?
Answer: • To reduce peripheral side-effects *by preventing peripheral conversion of levodopa to dopamine
Flashcard 96: Why is bupropion contraindicated in epilepsy?
Answer: It reduces seizure threshold
Flashcard 97: What are widespread convulsions without conscious impairment likely to represent?
Answer: • a Pseudoseizure
Flashcard 98: What can Dilated Pupil in a Female with Absent Leg Reflexes point towards?
Answer: • Holmes ADie Pupil
Flashcard 99: A patient taking antipsychotic medication presents with - hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, autonomic instability, altered mental state, diagnosis?
Answer: • Neuroleptic Malignant Sydrome
Flashcard 100: Besides Horner’s syndrome, what other signs can Pancoast tumours present with?
Answer: Shoulder pain and upper limb neurological signs
Flashcard 101: What is the next step in management after administering Prednisiolone in Bell's Palsy?
Answer: • Prescribe artificial tears • Eye taping at night
Flashcard 102: What are tongue fasciculations one of the signs of?
Answer: • Bulbar onset motor neuron disease
Flashcard 103: What part of the tongue does the Facial Nerve innervate?
Answer: • The anterior two-thirds of the tongue
Flashcard 104: What is used to manage Oedema consistant with a malignancy?
Answer: • IV Dexamethasone *steroids reduce vasogenic cerebral odema by targeting BBB around tumours, reducing vascular permeability
Flashcard 105: What is the investigation for suspected TIA?
Answer: • Carotid Doppler Ultrasound
Flashcard 106: What is the difference between Complex and Non-complex seizures?
Answer: • Complex focal seziures are characterised by a loss of awareness, memory loss for the clinical event and impaired responsivness at the time of the event
Flashcard 107: What Cerebral Artery Stroke affects the Feet & Legs?
Answer: • Anterior Cerebral Artery Stroke
Flashcard 108: How would you describe a seizure where a man suddenly stares into space and is non-responsive, then repeatedly smacks his lips and appears to be chewing?
Answer: Focal impaired awareness seizure
Flashcard 109: What would a headache that is linked to Valsalva manoeuvres (blowing into a syringe) indicate?
Answer: • Raised ICP Maybe a space-occupying lesion or IIH CT Head
Flashcard 110: Which nerve root does the tricep reflex correspond to?
Answer: C7-C8
Flashcard 111: Lesion to which cranial nerve would likely cause vertical diplopia?
Answer: • Trochlear Nerve (CN IV) - This nerve controls the eye to move down-and out (superior oblique)
Flashcard 112: The most common causes of viral meningitis in adults?
Answer: enteroviruses (e.g coxsackievirus)
Flashcard 113: What can a CN6 palsy be the first sign of?
Answer: • Brain metastasis he abducens nerve is the thinnest cranial nerve, and also has the longest intracranial course. As a result, it is susceptible to compression when space-occupying lesions such as brain metastases develop in patients.
Flashcard 114: What is the managment in suspected encephalitis?
Answer: • IV Aciclovir
Flashcard 115: What is the most appropriate medication to try and reduce the frequency of migraines in a woman of child bearing age?
Answer: • Propranolol
Flashcard 116: What are the MRI findings of HSV-1 encephalitis?
Answer: • Hyperintensity of the affected white matter and cortex • In the medial temporal lobes and insular cortex
Flashcard 117: What type of stroke can present with leg weakeness but not facial weakness or speech impairment?
Answer: • Anterior Cerebral Artery
Flashcard 118: Ispilateral facial pain and temperature loss Contralateral Limb Pain, Temperature loss. Ataxia. Nystagmus Where is the lesion?
Answer: • Posteroir Inferior Cerebellar artery
Flashcard 119: What Cranial Nerve compression may be inferred from a medially diverted eye, and horizontal diplopia?
Answer: • CNVI palsy • Abducens Nerve innervated the lateral rectus, so medial rectus overpowers it
Flashcard 120: Patient with Sudden Head Pain and previous Kidney Surgery?
Answer: • Poylcystic Kidney Disease • Associated with berry aneurysms (rupture can cause SAH)
Flashcard 121: What infection is most strongly associated with Guillian-Barre syndrome?
Answer: • Camylobacter jejuni
Flashcard 122: What does sudden onset weakness and numbness which self-resolves suggest?
Answer: • TIA
Flashcard 123: Patient presents with Fever, Headache, Psychiatric Symptoms, Seizures, Focal Features (Personality changes, Aphasia) what is your diagnosis?
Answer: • Herpes Simplex Encephalitis
Flashcard 124: What primary tumours most commonly metastasise to the brain? _____
Answer: "Large Brain Metastases Rarely Come" Lung Breast Melanoma Renal cell carcinoma Colorectal
Flashcard 125: What is the first-line investigation for suspected brain metastases? _____
Answer: MRI with contrast
Flashcard 126: Brain metastasis typically present with _____, well-circumscribed lesions at the grey-white junction
Answer: multiple
Flashcard 127: A 75-year-old patient with known lung cancer presents with first-time seizure & focal neurological deficits upon examination. What is the likely diagnosis? _____
Answer: Brain metastases
Flashcard 128: Are primary brain tumours or brain metastases more common? _____
Answer: Brain metastases
Flashcard 129: What is the correct definitive management of patients presenting with an acute ischaemic stroke who pesent within 4.5 hours?
Answer: thrombolysis AND thrombectomy
Flashcard 130: What does Progressive Peripheral Polyneuropathy with hyporeflexia suggest?
Answer: • Guillain-Barre Syndrome
Flashcard 131: What is the first-line investigation in all patients with features suggestive of SAH?
Answer: • Urgent CT head without contrast
Flashcard 132: What is the diagnosis of severe hypertension, flushing and sweating above the level of injury?
Answer: • Autonomic Dysreflexia
Flashcard 133: What is the best description of a stroke with: - Unilateral hemiparesis and/or hemisensory loss of the face, arm & leg - homonymous hemianopia - higher cognitive dysfunction e.g. dysphagia
Answer: Total Anterior Circulation Infarcts [Total = All 3 above criteria met]
Flashcard 134: What would indicate that Sodium valoprate is the best choice of drug in male seizures?
Answer: • Rhythmic jerking of the limbs [tonic-clonic seziure]
Flashcard 135: What imaging is done for a patient presenting with optic neuritis? _____
Answer: IV contrast MRI
Flashcard 136: Relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) is relative pupillary _____ when the light is shone in the affected eye
Answer: dilation
Flashcard 137: _____ is inflammation of the optic nerve
Answer: Optic neuritis
Flashcard 138: On examination optic neuritis can present with _____ with the swinging flashlight test
Answer: relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD)
Flashcard 139: Relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) is also referred to as _____ Pupil
Answer: Marcus Gunn
Flashcard 140: On examination optic neuritis can present with _____ desaturation
Answer: red
Flashcard 141: What is the acute management of optic neuritis? _____
Answer: IV methylprednisolone
Flashcard 142: _____ is the most common cause of optic neuritis
Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Flashcard 143: _____ presents with monocular, subactue visual loss with painful eye movements
Answer: Optic neuritis
Flashcard 144: _____ can precede Guillain-Barré syndrome, characterised by an ascending paralysis
Answer: Campylobacter jejuni
Flashcard 145: Parkinson's disease is a _____ diagnosis with the UK Parkinson's Disease Society Brain Bank Clinical Diagnostic Criteria
Answer: clinical
Flashcard 146: Chronic levodopa use can cause a(n) "_____ phenomenon", with unpredictable periods of akinesia (off) alternating with periods of improved mobility (on)
Answer: on-off
Flashcard 147: Peripheral conversion of _____ can cause N&V, tachyarrhythmias, postural hypotension
Answer: levodopa
Flashcard 148: What is the management of Parkinson's once medical therapy is exhausted? Consider _____
Answer: deep brain stimulation
Flashcard 149: What imaging may be considered in Parkinson's disease if uncertain diagnosis? _____
Answer: SPECT
Flashcard 150: What is the first-line management for Parkinson's disease if motor symptoms impact QOL*? _____
Answer: Levodopa
Flashcard 151: In older patients, REM sleep behavior disorder & anosmia may be a sign of _____
Answer: neurodegeneration (e.g., Parkinson’s disease)
Flashcard 152: _____ is a precursor of dopamine that does cross the blood-brain barrier
Answer: Levodopa (L-DOPA)
Flashcard 153: Chronic levodopa use can cause a(n) "_____ phenomenon", with akinesia re-emerging at the end of each dose
Answer: wearing-off
Flashcard 154: As Parkinson disease progresses, the therapeutic window for levodopa _____ and response becomes more unpredictable
Answer: narrows
Flashcard 155: _____ is a peripheral DOPA decarboxylase inhibitor used to reduce peripheral conversion and increase the bioavailability of levodopa
Answer: Carbidopa
Flashcard 156: Parkinson's disease presents with _____lateral & asymmetric motor signs
Answer: uni
Flashcard 157: What is the management for Parkinson's disease where the patient has developed dyskinesia and/or motor fluctuations? Offer _____, MAO-B, or COMT inhibitors in adjunct to levodopa Then consider amantadine if resistant
Answer: dopamine agonists
Flashcard 158: What is the first-line management for Parkinson's disease in early stages & motor symptoms do NOT impact QOL*? _____
Answer: Dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors
Flashcard 159: Which myotome contributes to elbow flexion? _____
Answer: C6
Flashcard 160: Which dermatome is the lower shoulders & medial biceps? _____
Answer: C5
Flashcard 161: Which dermatome is the lower neck, above clavicle including upper shoulders & trapezius (acromion)? _____
Answer: C4
Flashcard 162: Which dermatome is the dorsum of the foot & big toe? _____
Answer: L5
Flashcard 163: The biceps reflex is from _____ nerve roots
Answer: C5-6
Flashcard 164: Which myotome contributes to hip flexion? _____
Answer: L2
Flashcard 165: Which myotome contributes to wrist flexion? _____
Answer: C7
Flashcard 166: Parkinson's disease can be diagnosed earlier (40-50yrs) in _____ forms of the disease (~10% of cases)
Answer: familial
Flashcard 167: Which myotome contributes to knee flexion? _____
Answer: S2
Flashcard 168: Which myotome contributes to elbow extension? _____
Answer: C7
Flashcard 169: Which dermatome is the inguinal ligament? _____
Answer: L1
Flashcard 170: Parkinson's disease is typically diagnosed older than _____ years
Answer: 60
Flashcard 171: Which dermatome is the lateral forearm & thumb? _____
Answer: C6
Flashcard 172: Which dermatome is the patella & medial malleolus? _____
Answer: L4
Flashcard 173: _____ are a dysfunction of a spinal nerve root caused by compression, irritation, or injury resulting in: • Dermatomal pain/sensory loss • Motor weakness • Reflex changes
Answer: Radiculopathies
Flashcard 174: Motor symptoms of Parkinson's disease can be remembered with the mneumonic "_____"
Answer: TRAPSS
Flashcard 175: Which myotome contributes to ankle dorsiflexion? _____
Answer: L4
Flashcard 176: Which myotome contributes to knee extension? _____
Answer: L3
Flashcard 177: Which myotome contributes to shoulder abduction? _____
Answer: C5
Flashcard 178: Which myotome contributes to ankle plantarflexion? _____
Answer: S1
Flashcard 179: _____ is a chronic, progressive neurodegenerative disorder characterized by loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra
Answer: Parkinson's disease
Flashcard 180: The ankle-jerk reflex is from _____ nerve roots
Answer: L5-S1
Flashcard 181: The triceps reflex is from _____ nerve roots
Answer: C7-8
Flashcard 182: _____ disease has a hallmark histological feature of Lewy bodies, which are round, eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions composed primariy of misfolded α-synuclein
Answer: Parkinson's
Flashcard 183: Parkinson's disease typically progresses over _____
Answer: 10-20 years
Flashcard 184: Which dermatome is the perianal region? _____
Answer: S2-4
Flashcard 185: Which dermatome is the nipple level? _____
Answer: T4
Flashcard 186: Which dermatome is the posterior half of skull? _____
Answer: C2
Flashcard 187: Which myotome contributes to finger abduction/adduction? _____
Answer: T1
Flashcard 188: Which myotome contributes to cervical flexion/extension? _____
Answer: C1-2
Flashcard 189: Chronic fatigue syndrome is managed with _____ management, physical activity, diet, CBT, advice regarding flare-ups etc...
Answer: energy
Flashcard 190: Which dermatome is the ring & little finger? _____
Answer: C8
Flashcard 191: Which myotome contributes to finger flexion/extension? _____
Answer: C8
Flashcard 192: The brachioradialis reflex is from _____ nerve roots
Answer: C5-6
Flashcard 193: The knee-jerk reflex is from _____ nerve roots
Answer: L3-4
Flashcard 194: Motor symptoms of Parkinson's disease: _____ Rigidity → cogwheel rigidity with passive movement Akinesia/bradykinesia → slow voluntary movement & a "masked" face (emotionless) Postural instability → trouble with balance, can be examined with the "pull test" Shuffling gait Small handwriting (micrographia)
Answer: Tremor → pill-rolling resting tremor improved with movement
Flashcard 195: Which myotome contributes to wrist extension? _____
Answer: C6
Flashcard 196: Which dermatome is the xiphoid process? _____
Answer: T7
Flashcard 197: Which dermatome is the upper neck? _____
Answer: C3
Flashcard 198: Which dermatome is the middle & index finger? _____
Answer: C7
Flashcard 199: Parkinson's disease has an _____ cause, but is thought to be related to genetic predisposition, environmental factors, head trauma, & ageing processes
Answer: idiopathic
Flashcard 200: Which myotome contributes to hip extension? _____
Answer: L5
Flashcard 201: _____ is a protective factor for Parkinson's disease
Answer: Smoking
Flashcard 202: Which myotome contributes to big toe extension? _____
Answer: L5
Flashcard 203: Which dermatome is the umbilical level? _____
Answer: T10
Flashcard 204: Multiple sclerosis may present with _____ due to intranuclear ophthalmoplegia
Answer: double vision
Flashcard 205: What is the management in primary care for chronic fatigue syndrome? _____
Answer: Refer to CFS/ME specialist team
Flashcard 206: Does supplementation with omega 3 or omega 6 prevent relapse or progression of multiple sclerosis? _____
Answer: No
Flashcard 207: Chronic fatigue syndrome has a(n) _____ cause
Answer: idiopathic
Flashcard 208: Multiple sclerosis patients may experience _____: an exacerbation of neurological symptoms due to an increase in body temperature
Answer: Uhtoff's phenomenon
Flashcard 209: Intranuclear ophthalmoplegia in multiple sclerosis is typically caused by a lesion where? _____
Answer: Medial longitudinal fasiculus
Flashcard 210: Multiple sclerosis patients experiencing mobility problems may be prescribed _____
Answer: fampridine
Flashcard 211: Multiple sclerosis may present with _____ difficulties if there is a lesion in the cerebellum
Answer: balance/gait
Flashcard 212: Chronic fatigue syndrome causes debilitating _____ that is worsened with activity & NOT relieved by rest
Answer: fatigue
Flashcard 213: _____ is also known as myalgic encephalomyelitis
Answer: Chronic fatigue syndrome
Flashcard 214: _____ multiple sclerosis is characterised by continuous progression of symptoms from the onset of the disease
Answer: Primary-progressive
Flashcard 215: _____ sign is paraesthesia/shooting sensation down the spine upon neck flexion and is seen in demyelinating diseases
Answer: Lhermitte's
Flashcard 216: Acute viral illness may trigger _____ in MS patients due to fevers
Answer: Uhtoff's phenomenon
Flashcard 217: CSF electrophoresis during an exacerbation of MS will show _____
Answer: multiple oligocolonal bands in CSF that are not present in the blood
Flashcard 218: _____ is a chronic autoimmune disease that causes demyelination of the CNS and axonal degeneration thought to be caused by auto-reactive T-lymphocytes
Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Flashcard 219: Diagnosis of multiple sclerosis uses the _____ criteria: ≥2 episodes separated in space (confirmed on MRI) and time (confirmed on MRI or CSF analysis)
Answer: McDonald
Flashcard 220: CFS/ME most commonly affects _____ between 30-50 years old
Answer: females
Flashcard 221: Chronic fatigue syndrome is a _____ diagnosis, with investigations done to rule out other causes
Answer: clinical
Flashcard 222: _____ may be used in addition to MRI for the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis
Answer: CSF electrophoresis
Flashcard 223: _____ is the most common presentation of multiple sclerosis and is typically UNIlateral
Answer: Optic neuritis
Flashcard 224: _____ should be ruled out before diagnosing a relapse of multiple sclerosis
Answer: Infection
Flashcard 225: Multiple sclerosis patients experiencing _____ may be prescribed gabapentin or memantine
Answer: oscillopsia
Flashcard 226: _____ multiple sclerosis is characterised by relapsing-remitting patients who have worsened and now have MS symptoms continuously
Answer: Secondary-progressive
Flashcard 227: Multiple sclerosis patients experiencing emotional lability may be prescribed _____
Answer: amitriptyline
Flashcard 228: What lifestyle modifications may reduce relapse or progression of multiple sclerosis? _____ & Smoking cessation
Answer: Regular exercise
Flashcard 229: Which spinal tract is affected first in multiple sclerosis? _____
Answer: Dorsal colum - proprioception, vibration, fine touch
Flashcard 230: _____ is a complex, chronic disorder characterised by persistent fatige, post-exertional malaise, unrefreshing sleep, & cognitive issues for > 3 months
Answer: Chronic fatigue syndrome
Flashcard 231: Long term management of multiple sclerosis is with _____ such as natalizumab, cladribine and ocrelizumab
Answer: disease modifying treatments
Flashcard 232: Multiple sclerosis patients experiencing fatigue where non-pharmacological management has failed may be prescribed _____
Answer: amantadine
Flashcard 233: What is the 1st line investigation for multiple sclerosis? _____
Answer: MRI (T2 weighted)
Flashcard 234: Multiple sclerosis may present with cranial nerve palsies such as _____ and bell's palsy (CNVII)
Answer: trigeminal neuralgia (CNV)
Flashcard 235: Multiple sclerosis may cause _____ resulting in incontinence and sexual dysfunction
Answer: autonomic dysfunction
Flashcard 236: What is the management of an acute relapse of multiple sclerosis? _____
Answer: High dose PO or IV methylprednisolone
Flashcard 237: Multiple sclerosis patients experiencing _____ may be prescribed baclofen or gabapentin
Answer: spasticity
Flashcard 238: Multiple sclerosis typically causes _____ paraesthesia and weakness
Answer: ascending
Flashcard 239: Chronic fatigue syndrome causes _____ after physical, mental, or emotional exertion/activity
Answer: post-exertional malaise (PEM)
Flashcard 240: Chronic fatigue syndrome patients complain of "_____ sleep"
Answer: unrefreshing
Flashcard 241: Chronic fatigue syndrome suffer from _____ impairment
Answer: cognitivie
Flashcard 242: _____ multiple sclerosis is characterised by relapses/exacerbations lasting 1-2 months with complete remission inbetween
Answer: Relapsing-remitting
Flashcard 243: Multiple sclerosis is generally categorised into 3 types: _____, secondary progressive disease and primary progressive disease
Answer: relapsing-remitting disease (most common)
Flashcard 244: Multiple sclerosis is typically diagnosed between _____-40 years old
Answer: 20
Flashcard 245: Do genetics affect the risk of developing multiple sclerosis? _____
Answer: Yes (not directly inherited but there are 100s of genes affecting risk)
Flashcard 246: Multiple sclerosis is more common in _____
Answer: women
Flashcard 247: Multiple sclerosis is more common in countries located _____ from the equator
Answer: further
Flashcard 248: Loss of awareness or altered consciousness, lip-smacking and confusion lasting 1-2 minutes = _____ seizure
Answer: focal impaired awareness
Flashcard 249: Absence seizures are characteristically provoked by _____
Answer: hyperventilation
Flashcard 250: "drop seizures" with sudden loss of muscle tone < 15 seconds = _____ seizure
Answer: atonic
Flashcard 251: All patients with suspected first epileptic seizure should be _____
Answer: urgently (2ww) referred for assessment
Flashcard 252: _____ cannot be given to women because of teratogenicity
Answer: Sodium valproate
Flashcard 253: Generalised seizures may be differentiated from syncopal episodes by the presence of a(n) _____ state and lateral tongue biting
Answer: post-ictal
Flashcard 254: Myoclonic seizures anti-epileptic drugs 1st-line: _____ 2nd-line: Lamotrigine
Answer: Levetiracetam
Flashcard 255: Focal seizures anti-epileptic drugs 1st-line: _____ 2nd-line: Carbamazepine
Answer: Lamotrigine or levetiracetam
Flashcard 256: During a seizure, _____, assess their airway, and place them in the recovery position afterwards
Answer: protect the patient
Flashcard 257: Bus, coach, or lorry drivers with a single seizure cannot drive for _____, with epilepsy it is 10 years
Answer: 5 years
Flashcard 258: Epileptic patients should be reviewed at least _____ if they have a learning disability, drug-resistant epilepsy, ↑ risk of SUDEP, & more
Answer: once a year
Flashcard 259: "Zoning out" blank stare for < 10 seconds with subtle lip-smacking & eye fluttering = _____ seizures
Answer: absence
Flashcard 260: What is the first step in management of a patient with a first-time seizure that is actively seizing? _____
Answer: Manage ABCs THEN abort the seizure if > 5 minutes THEN assess VITAMINS
Flashcard 261: Sudden, muscle stiffening lasting <1min occuring when the patient is drowsy, asleep, or after waking with rapid recovery = _____ seizures
Answer: tonic
Flashcard 262: Localised symptoms / aura to generalised tonic-clonic = _____ seizure
Answer: focal to bilateral tonic clonic
Flashcard 263: For a first time seizure, order an EEG and CT scan and consider the "VITAMINS" mnemonic to identify a cause: _____ Infection Trauma Autoimmune Metabolic Ingestion or wIthdrawal Neoplasm Syndromes
Answer: Vascular
Flashcard 264: Sudden brief "jerk-like" muscle twitching that are irregular = _____ seizures
Answer: myoclonic
Flashcard 265: What investigation may be used in epilepsy to investigate possible underlying structural abnormalities? _____
Answer: MRI
Flashcard 266: Generalised tonic-clonic anti-epileptic drugs 1st-line: _____
Answer: Lamotrigine or levetiracetam
Flashcard 267: What is SUDEP? _____
Answer: Sudden Unexpected Death in Epilepsy; 1 in 1,000 chance per year
Flashcard 268: Rhythmic jerking of a hand, tingling & visual distortions while fully conscious = _____ seizure
Answer: focal aware
Flashcard 269: Tonic / atonic seizures anti-epileptic drugs 1st-line: _____ 2nd-line: Clobazam, Topiramate, Rufinamide
Answer: Lamotrigine
Flashcard 270: 1st unprovoked seizure means _____ of no driving
Answer: 6 months
Flashcard 271: LOC, rhythmic, bilateral jerking without preceding tonic phase = _____ seizures
Answer: clonic
Flashcard 272: What is the definitive investigation for epilepsy? _____
Answer: EEG
Flashcard 273: The initial diagnostic workup of a first-time seizure in an adult should include laboratory tests to evaluate for _____ and toxic causes
Answer: metabolic
Flashcard 274: What is the most appropriate step in the management of an active seizure in a patient with epilepsy? _____
Answer: Manage ABCs THEN abort the seizure if > 5 minutes THEN assess therapeutic drug levels THEN assess VITAMINS and get EEG
Flashcard 275: When managing epilepsy with anti-epileptic drugs (AED) aim for _____, though combination therapy may be required for some patients
Answer: monotherapy
Flashcard 276: What is the abortive management for status epilepticus? _____
Answer: Benzodiazepine
Flashcard 277: If patient is withdrawing from epileptic medication they cannot drive for _____ after last dose
Answer: 6 months
Flashcard 278: Epileptic seizure means _____ of no driving
Answer: 12 months
Flashcard 279: Absence seizures anti-epileptic drugs 1st-line: _____ 2nd-line: lamotrigine or levetiracetam
Answer: Ethosuximide
Flashcard 280: Focal seizures can be categorised into focal _____ & focal impaired awareness
Answer: aware
Flashcard 281: Epilepsy is more common in individuals with _____
Answer: learning disabilities
Flashcard 282: _____ is a chronic neurological disorder characterised by - ≥ 2 or more unprovoked seizures > 24 hours apart - ≥ 1 or more unprovoked seizures with high risk of subsequent seizures - Diagnosis of epilepsy syndrome
Answer: Epilepsy
Flashcard 283: Patient had LOC and amnesia with prolonged postictal confusion, drowsiness, muscle soreness, headache, deep sleep (postictal stupor) lasting minutes to hours. What is the likely diagnosis? _____
Answer: Generalised tonic clonic seizures
Flashcard 284: Pituitary macroadenomas may compress the optic chiasm leading to _____
Answer: bitemporal hemianopia
Flashcard 285: _____ seizures originate from within a single hemispheres Generalised seizures originate from within both hemispheres
Answer: Focal
Flashcard 286: _____ seizure occurs after the onset of an acute systemic or CNS condition
Answer: Provoked
Flashcard 287: _____ seizures have the most severe postictal phase
Answer: Generalised tonic clonic
Flashcard 288: _____ is a prolonged seizure ≥ 5 minutes or recurrent seizures without full neurological recovery
Answer: Status epilepticus
Flashcard 289: LOC, generalised muscle contractions/stiffening for with subsequent rhythmic jerking of all limbs, tongue biting, urinary incontinence. Lasts 1-3 minutes = _____ seizures
Answer: generalised tonic clonic
Flashcard 290: _____ seizures occur in the absence of an identifiable cause
Answer: Unprovoked
Flashcard 291: To diagnose epilepsy the patient needs to have ≥ _____ unprovoked seizures > 24 hours apart
Answer: 2
Flashcard 292: A seizure can be defined as _____ in the brain causing abnormalities in clinical signs & symptoms
Answer: irregular electrical activity
Flashcard 293: Hypocalcaemia can have life-threatening neurological complications such as _____
Answer: seizures
Flashcard 294: Facial spasm when tapping on the facial nerve is suggestive of what metabolic abnormality? _____
Answer: Hypocalcaemia (Chvostek's sign)
Flashcard 295: _____ is a rare type of diabetic neuropathy that affects a single cranial nerve
Answer: Cranial mononeuropathy
Flashcard 296: Referral to a neurologist for _____ is only required for aytipical presentations of diabetic neuropathy
Answer: nerve conduction studies
Flashcard 297: Name the visual field defect: _____
Answer: (left) contralateral homonymous inferior quadrantanopia
Flashcard 298: The visual fields are subdivided into _____ & temporal hemifields
Answer: nasal
Flashcard 299: Name the visual field defect: _____
Answer: (left) contralateral homonymous superior quadrantanopia
Flashcard 300: At the optic chiasm, more than half of optic fibers from the _____ half of each retina cross and project into the contralateral optic tracts
Answer: nasal
Flashcard 301: Contralateral homonymous inferior quadrantanopia is a visual field defect associated with a lesion to the _____ lobe
Answer: parietal
Flashcard 302: What visual field defect results from an infarct to the PCA artery affecting the primary visual cortex? _____
Answer: Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing
Flashcard 303: Visual images perceived in the nasal hemifield will stimulate cells on the _____ half of the ipsilateral retina (and vice versa)
Answer: temporal
Flashcard 304: Name the visual field defect: _____
Answer: bitemporal hemianopia
Flashcard 305: Central scotoma is a visual field defect associated with a lesion to the _____
Answer: macula
Flashcard 306: Contralateral homonymous superior quadrantanopia is a visual field defect associated with a lesion to the _____ lobe
Answer: temporal
Flashcard 307: What visual field defect results from complete lesion of the optic nerve (e.g. central retinal artery occlusion, central retinal vein occlusion)? _____
Answer: Ipsilateral anopia
Flashcard 308: What visual field defect results from a lesion of the macula (e.g. macular degeneration)? _____
Answer: Central scotoma
Flashcard 309: What visual field defect results from a lesion of the optic chiasm (e.g. pituitary adenoma, craniopharyngioma)? _____
Answer: Bitemporal hemianopia
Flashcard 310: Name the visual field defect: _____
Answer: (left) contralateral homonymous hemianopia
Flashcard 311: What visual field defect results from a lesion of the parietal lobe (e.g. MCA infarct)? _____
Answer: Contralateral homonymous inferior quadrantanopia
Flashcard 312: Name the visual field defect: _____
Answer: (left) contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing
Flashcard 313: Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing is a visual field defect associated with _____ artery infarct
Answer: posterior cerebral
Flashcard 314: Bitemporal hemianopia is a visual field defect associated with a lesion to the _____
Answer: optic chiasm
Flashcard 315: Monocular anopia is a visual field defect associated with a complete lesion to the _____
Answer: optic nerve
Flashcard 316: What visual field defect results from a lesion of the temporal lobe (e.g. MCA infarct)? _____
Answer: Contralateral homonymous superior quadrantanopia
Flashcard 317: Visual images perceived in the temporal hemifield will stimulate cells on the _____ half of the ipsilateral retina (and vice versa)
Answer: nasal
Flashcard 318: Name the visual field defect: _____
Answer: (right) anopia
Flashcard 319: What is the orientation of an image when it hits the primary visual cortex? _____
Answer: Upside down with left-right reversed
Flashcard 320: Name the visual field defect: _____
Answer: (right) central scotoma
Flashcard 321: Spot Diagnosis = _____
Answer:
Flashcard 322: Peripheral neuropathy and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord in vitamin B12 deficiency presents _____metrically
Answer: sym
Flashcard 323: Vitamin B12 deficiency presents with _____ and subacute combined degeneration (neurologic symptoms)
Answer: peripheral neuropathy
Flashcard 324: Vitamin B12 deficiency initially presents as lower extremity _____ with no other neurologic findings
Answer: paresthesias
Flashcard 325: Spot diagnosis = _____
Answer: asterixis
Flashcard 326: Subacute combined degeneration (B12 deficiency) of the spinal cord affects the _____, spinocerebellar tracts, & lateral corticospinal tracts
Answer: dorsal columns
Flashcard 327: The first neurological symptoms in vitamin B12 deficiency will be _____ in the lower limbs
Answer: peripheral neuropathy
Flashcard 328: _____ is a spinal cord lesion most commonly seen with vitamin B12 deficiency
Answer: Subacute combined degerneration
Flashcard 329: Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause neuropsychiatric disease such as _____ dementia
Answer: reversible
Flashcard 330: What disease is associated with this spinal cord lesion? _____
Answer: Subacute combined degeneration (B12 deficiency)
Flashcard 331: Risk factors for pressure sores: _____ mobility Conditions causing neuropathy Malnutrition
Answer: Reduced
Flashcard 332: Bell's palsy can cause _____ because CN VII innervates the stapedius muscle
Answer: hyperacusis
Flashcard 333: How to differentiate between Bell's palsy & stroke in a patient? _____
Answer: Ask the patient to wrinkle forehead (patient cannot wrinkle forehead in Bell's palsy)
Flashcard 334: What is the first-line management for myasthenia gravis? _____ ± immunosuppression
Answer: Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (Pyridostigmine)
Flashcard 335: Bell's palsy affects the _____ facial muscles
Answer: upper & lower
Flashcard 336: In patient's with ptosis due to _____, application of an ice pack over the eyelids will result in improvement of symptoms
Answer: myasthenia gravis
Flashcard 337: _____ is an autoimmune disease due to production of antibodies against post-synaptic nicotinc ACh receptors at motor end plates
Answer: Myasthenia gravis
Flashcard 338: What is the pharmacological management of Bell's palsy? _____ if patient has presented within 72 hours (1)
Answer: Oral glucocorticoids (prednisolone)
Flashcard 339: What gender is more commonly affected by myasthenia gravis? _____
Answer: Females
Flashcard 340: What is the best initial diagnostic investigation for myasthenia gravis? _____
Answer: Serum anti-acetylcholine receptor (anti-ACh-R) antibody testing
Flashcard 341: Bell's palsy affects cranial nerve _____
Answer: VII
Flashcard 342: Bilateral ptosis, diplopia, dysphagia and muscle weakness is suggestive of _____
Answer: myasthenia gravis
Flashcard 343: Myasthenic _____ is often precipitated by infection, surgery, and medications and can lead to severe respiratory muscle weakness and respiratory failure
Answer: crisis
Flashcard 344: _____ can be done for initial presentation of Bell's palsy in areas with ticks
Answer: ELISA Borrelia burgdorferi
Flashcard 345: Myasthenia gravis classically manifests as fatigable _____, bulbar (e.g. dysarthria) & proximal muscle weakness
Answer: ocular (e.g. ptosis, diplopia)
Flashcard 346: Bell's palsy is _____
Answer: painless
Flashcard 347: What is the first-line prophylaxis of tension headache? _____
Answer: Acupuncture - up to 10 sessions of acupuncture
Flashcard 348: Myasthenia gravis most commonly presents with _____ manifestations
Answer: ocular
Flashcard 349: Myasthenia gravis is a Type _____ hypersensitivity reaction
Answer: II
Flashcard 350: Refer Bell's palsy to secondary care if there is incomplete recovery by _____
Answer: 3 months
Flashcard 351: Advise patients with tension headaches of _____ headache
Answer: medication overuse
Flashcard 352: Keeping a _____ can assist in diagnosing tension headaches, identifying triggers, & assess medication efficacy
Answer: Headache diary
Flashcard 353: Bell's palsy is _____lateral
Answer: uni
Flashcard 354: Myasthenia gravis presents with muscle weakness that _____ with muscle use
Answer: worsens
Flashcard 355: Bell's palsy improves after ~_____ & is usually gone within 2 months
Answer: 2.5 weeks
Flashcard 356: What historical investigation is no longer done for myasthenia gravis? _____
Answer: Edrophonium (Tensilon®)
Flashcard 357: _____ is an acute, unilateral lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy of unknown cause
Answer: Bell's palsy
Flashcard 358: A _____ exam may be performed to rule out other causes of Bell's palsy
Answer: neurological
Flashcard 359: Myasthenia gravis can be fatal because of _____
Answer: respiratory comprimise
Flashcard 360: Myasthenia gravis may present as a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with _____
Answer: thymoma (may also have thymic hyperplasia)
Flashcard 361: Following intubation, myasthenic crisis may be managed with _____ PLUS IVIG or plasma exchange
Answer: High-dose prednisone
Flashcard 362: What does Myasthenic crisis present with? _____
Answer: Respiratory failure +/- bulbar weakness
Flashcard 363: _____ is contraindicated in myasthenia gravis
Answer: Aminoglycosides
Flashcard 364: What investigation is done if there is negative serology & neurophysiology for a patient with suspected ocular myasthenia gravis? _____
Answer: MRI scan of brain → structural brain disease causing these symptoms
Flashcard 365: What is the self-care management of Bell's palsy? _____
Answer: Eye protection: - artificial tears / lubricants to prevent eyes drying - taping of eyes overnight to keep shut Eating: - Straws & soft diet
Flashcard 366: Myasthenia gravis has progressive weakness because _____
Answer: high conc. of ACh are needed to compete with anti-ACh antibodies and yield the same muscle strength. Repetitive use means there is not enough time for ACh to be replenished, thus smaller and smaller amounts of ACh are released and the muscle becomes weaker and weaker
Flashcard 367: The cause of Bell's palsy is unknown but linked to reactivation of _____ & varicella-zoster virus (esp in Ramsay Hunt Syndrome)
Answer: herpes simplex virus (HSV-1)
Flashcard 368: Myasthenia gravis classically involves the eyes, leading to _____ and diplopia
Answer: ptosis
Flashcard 369: A patient is strongly suspected to have myasthenia gravis. Initial antibody testing is -ve for anti-AChR-antibodies. Which other autoantibodies can you consider testing for? _____
Answer: Anti-MUSK antibodies
Flashcard 370: What is the next step in management for a patient developing respiratory failure due to myasthenic crisis? _____
Answer: Intubation
Flashcard 371: What investigation is used to help confirm the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis? _____
Answer: EMG with repetitive nerve stimulation
Flashcard 372: Myasthenic crisis is most commonly triggered by _____
Answer: respiratory tract infections
Flashcard 373: What is the surgical management for myasthenia gravis? _____
Answer: Thymectomy
Flashcard 374: What is the acute management of tension headaches? _____
Answer: Paracetamol, NSAIDs, or aspirin
Flashcard 375: What imaging should be done for all patients with myasthenia gravis? _____
Answer: Thymus CT or MRI
Flashcard 376: Fatigability of muscles in myasthenia gravis can be demonstrated by _____
Answer: repetitive movements (e.g. flap arms) for 30-60 seconds causing weakness
Flashcard 377: Bell's palsy can disturb _____ because CN VII supplies anterior 2/3rds of taste innervation to the tongue
Answer: taste
Flashcard 378: What is the second-line prophylaxis of tension headache? _____
Answer: Low-dose amitriptyline
Flashcard 379: Myasthenia gravis has a bimodal age distribution at _____ and ~60 years old
Answer: ~20
Flashcard 380: How to distinguish between a myasthenic crisis & cholinergic crisis from too much medication (acetylcholinesterase inhibitor)? _____
Answer: Edrophonium (Tensilon®)
Flashcard 381: Bell's palsy is _____ reaching its peak within 3 days
Answer: facial muscle weakness/paralysis
Flashcard 382: Migraines affect _____ with a ratio of 3:1
Answer: women
Flashcard 383: Cluster headaches can be categorised into _____ or chronic based on the frequency of attacks
Answer: episodic
Flashcard 384: Migraines can be categorised into _____ or chronic depending on the frequency of attacks
Answer: episodic
Flashcard 385: What is the first-line acute management of migraines? _____ or/and Triptan
Answer: Analgesia (NSAID or paracetamol)
Flashcard 386: Most patients with cluster headaches have _____ to rule out any underlying brain lesions
Answer: neuroimaging
Flashcard 387: Tension headaches episodes last _____ - 7 days
Answer: 30 minutes
Flashcard 388: What are the migraine triggers? _____
Answer: CHOCOLATE Chocolate Hangovers Orgasms Cheese, Caffeine Oral contraceptive pill Lie-ins Alcohol Travel Exercise
Flashcard 389: Cluster headaches may present with _____ syndrome
Answer: Horner
Flashcard 390: Migraines with aura are characterised by _____
Answer: transient focal neurological symptoms - VISUAL, SENSORY, or SPEECH
Flashcard 391: Cluster headaches are typically _____
Answer: severe or very severe
Flashcard 392: For suspected cluster headaches, patients should be _____ to exclude structural causes and confirmed diagnosis
Answer: managed by neurologist/specialist
Flashcard 393: When a patient does suffer a cluster headache it lasts for _____-3hrs
Answer: 15min
Flashcard 394: Tension headaches classification: _____ = < 1 day of headache per month Frequent episodic = at least 10 episodes occurring < 15 days per month, on average for > 3 months Chronic = ≥ 15 days of headache per month, on average for > 3 months
Answer: Infrequent episodic
Flashcard 395: Migraines typically have a _____ character
Answer: pulsating/throbbing
Flashcard 396: The pathophysiology of migraines is unclear, but possible mechanisms include cortical spreading depression, neurovascular changes, neuropeptides & neurotransmitters such as _____
Answer: calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP)
Flashcard 397: Migraines are typically _____lateral
Answer: uni
Flashcard 398: _____ headache are often described as a(n) "tight band" around the head or a pressure sensation
Answer: Tension
Flashcard 399: Tension headaches _____ associated with aura, nausea/vomiting, or aggrevated by routine physical activity
Answer: are not
Flashcard 400: What is the first-line prophylactic management of migraines? _____ or topiramate
Answer: Propranolol
Flashcard 401: _____ are the most common primary characterised by a "tight band" around the head or pressure sensation lasting 30min to 7days
Answer: Tension headaches
Flashcard 402: How would you manage an acute attack of a cluster headache? _____
Answer: Subcut sumatriptan or intranasal sumatriptan/zoimtriptan Short-burst high-flow 100% home oxygen
Flashcard 403: Cluster headaches can be triggered by anything (eg alcohol, being hot, strong smells) and patients should _____ when having a bout
Answer: try avoid these triggers
Flashcard 404: What supplement can be given for migraines? _____
Answer: NICE recommend advising 400mg OD riboflavin
Flashcard 405: Migraines are typically last _____-72 hours
Answer: 4
Flashcard 406: Tension headaches are typically _____
Answer: mild or moderate
Flashcard 407: Keeping a _____ can assist in diagnosing migraines, identifying triggers, & assess medication efficacy
Answer: Headache diary
Flashcard 408: Cluster headaches are associated with excruciating _____ pain
Answer: periorbital
Flashcard 409: What is the second-line prophylactic management for migraines? _____
Answer: Course of 10 sessions of acupuncture
Flashcard 410: _____ are a rare primary headache characterised by severe recurring headaches accompanied by autonomic symptoms
Answer: Cluster headaches
Flashcard 411: Symptoms of migraines _____ during pregnancy
Answer: improve
Flashcard 412: Auras in migraines typically develop over _____ & last 5-60 minutes
Answer: 5 minutes
Flashcard 413: During cluster headaches bouts of pain are typically localised to the _____ regions
Answer: orbital, supraorbital, or temporal
Flashcard 414: Migraines can be categorised into _____ or without aura based on symptoms
Answer: with aura
Flashcard 415: Cluster headaches are so severe and frequent it can significantly impact QOL and lead to _____
Answer: suicidal ideation
Flashcard 416: For migraines with or without nausea & vomiting, _____ or metoclopramide may be prescribed to alleviate migraine symptoms
Answer: prochlorperazine
Flashcard 417: Patients suffer from _____ headaches in "bouts" which typically last 6-12 weeks
Answer: cluster
Flashcard 418: Cluster headaches may be associated with _____ and rhinorrhea
Answer: lacrimation
Flashcard 419: During a bout of cluster headaches, each attack of pain occurs at _____ time each day on the same side of the head
Answer: the same
Flashcard 420: The most common type of aura symptoms in a migraine are _____
Answer: visual (temporary loss of part of vision, bright flashing lights, objects/letters rotating)
Flashcard 421: What is the prophylactic management for cluster headaches? _____
Answer: Verapamil
Flashcard 422: _____ is characterised by migraine headaches accompanied by motor weakness during the preceding aura phase
Answer: Hemiplegic migraine
Flashcard 423: Tension headaches are _____
Answer: non-pulsatile
Flashcard 424: How does triptan management for migraines change in < 18 years vs adults? _____
Answer: In young people, consider nasal triptan in preference to oral triptan
Flashcard 425: Tension headaches are almost always _____lateral
Answer: bi
Flashcard 426: Migraines are typically _____
Answer: moderate or severe
Flashcard 427: A 28 year-old asthmatic female wants a medication to help prevent her migraines, what do you give her? _____
Answer: Advise her that propranolol cannot be given with her asthma, and topiramate should be avoided in childbearing age → acupuncture course or amytriptyline medication
Flashcard 428: What primary headache type is most commonly associated with emotional tension, anxiety, tiredness or stress? _____
Answer: Tension headache
Flashcard 429: Migraines are a diagnosis of _____
Answer: exclusion
Flashcard 430: Cluster headaches are typically _____lateral
Answer: uni
Flashcard 431: Migraines typically present as a pulsating pain with _____, photophobia, or phonophobia
Answer: nausea
Flashcard 432: Cluster headaches are more common in _____ 4:1
Answer: males
Flashcard 433: What is the investigation for herniated discs if a clinical diagnosis cannot be made? _____
Answer: MRI spine
Flashcard 434: _____ are most susceptible to viral meningitis caused by enteroviruses
Answer: Children
Flashcard 435: The brain has limited ability to accommodate additional volume because of the _____, making it susceptible to ↑ ICP if any additional volume is introduced
Answer: skull
Flashcard 436: Do not give a patient IM/IV benzylpenicillin for meningococcal meningitis/sepsis if _____
Answer: clear previous history of anaphylaxis from penicillin
Flashcard 437: Headaches because of raised ICP are typically worse _____
Answer: in the morning
Flashcard 438: _____ is a life-threatening condition that involves inflammation of the leptomeninges caused by bacteria
Answer: Bacterial meningitis
Flashcard 439: What is the most common cause of fungal meningitis? _____
Answer: Cryptococcus neoformans
Flashcard 440: The skull is a rigid container of _____: The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of inctracranial volumes is constant, therefore an ↑ increase in one must be offset by an equivalent ↓ decrease in the other two
Answer: brain tissue, cerebral blood, CSF
Flashcard 441: What is the surgical management for herniated disc? _____
Answer: Decompression via laminectomy
Flashcard 442: Herniated disc is diagnosis of _____
Answer: exclusion
Flashcard 443: Vaccination against meningococcus groups A, C, W, Y is given _____
Answer: at 14 years old (school Year 9)
Flashcard 444: The classic combination of _____, vomiting, and papilloedema is indicative of raised intracranial pressure
Answer: headache
Flashcard 445: What is the pharmacological management for herniated disc with radiculopathy? _____
Answer: Amitriptyline
Flashcard 446: ICP is vital because as it ↑, the body _____ mean arterial pressure in order to maintain cerebral perfusion pressure
Answer: ↑
Flashcard 447: _____ meningitis is associated with CSF findings: neutrophil/granulocyte predominance ↑ protein ↓ glucose
Answer: Bacterial
Flashcard 448: A patient with raised intracranial pressure should have a _____/MRI to rule out an underlying cause
Answer: CT
Flashcard 449: If ICP rises significantly causing the compensatory reduction in blood flow and CSF to be exhausted, the pressure ↑ increases and _____ can occur
Answer: herniation
Flashcard 450: Intraventricular catheters in invasive intracranial monitoring can also be used to ↓ ICP by _____
Answer: intermittent CSF drainage for short periods in response to elevations in ICP
Flashcard 451: _____ is a possible clinical sign of meningitis that is described as flexion of the hip to 90o with pain on passive extension of the leg
Answer: Kernig's Sign
Flashcard 452: A patient with raised ICP should be positioned _____
Answer: with head elevation of 30°
Flashcard 453: If ICP >_____mmHg then further management may be needed to ↓ ICP
Answer: 20
Flashcard 454: Lumbar puncture for bacterial meningitis is contraindicated if _____, focal neurology, & signs of severe shock/sepsis
Answer: signs of ↑ ICP
Flashcard 455: What blood investigations are done for suspected meningitis? _____
Answer: Blood cultures
Flashcard 456: What is the first-line pharmacological for raised intracranial pressure? _____
Answer: IV mannitol
Flashcard 457: _____ are a primary headache marked by unilateral, severe, throbbing pain lasting 4-72 hours
Answer: Migraines
Flashcard 458: Bacterial meningitis classically presents with _____, sudden severe headache, & nuchal rigidity
Answer: high fever
Flashcard 459: What is the management for suspected viral meningitis? _____
Answer: Treat as bacterial meningitis until diagnosis is excluded/deemed unlikely
Flashcard 460: Brain _____ of Cryptococcus infection appears as "soap-bubble" lesions in the white matter of the brain
Answer: MRI
Flashcard 461: The leading cause of raised ICP are _____
Answer: traumatic brain injuries (TBI)
Flashcard 462: _____ meningitis is associated with CSF findings: lymphocyte predominance (or sometimes mixed) ↑ protein ↓ glucose
Answer: Fungal
Flashcard 463: _____ meningitis CSF appears turbid
Answer: Bacterial
Flashcard 464: Use _____ to aid decision making about management in herniated discs / sciatica
Answer: STarT back risk assessment tool
Flashcard 465: Initial antibiotics for Listeria monocytogenes meningitis is _____
Answer: IV amoxicillin + gentamicin
Flashcard 466: Invasive ICP monitoring is most commonly used in _____
Answer: severe closed head injury
Flashcard 467: Patients with bacterial meningitis may be given _____ to avoid hearing loss
Answer: IV dexamethasone
Flashcard 468: What management can be used in raised ICP that works by causing vasoconstriction of cerebral arteries? _____
Answer: Controlled hyperventilation
Flashcard 469: Initial antibiotics for pneumococcal meningitis is _____
Answer: IV cefotaxime
Flashcard 470: _____ is a possible clinical sign of meningitis that is described as involuntary flexion of the hips/knees after passive flexion of neck while supine
Answer: Brudzinski's Sign
Flashcard 471: Patients close contact ≤ 7 days ago with meningococcal meningitis should be given _____
Answer: ciprofloxacin
Flashcard 472: For fungal meningitis, a CSF or serum _____ are a better indicator of fungal burden and outcome
Answer: Cryptococcal antigen titres
Flashcard 473: _____ is a condition that involves inflammation of the leptomeninges caused by fungi
Answer: Fungal meningitis
Flashcard 474: Fungal meningitis classically presents with _____, headache, & nuchal rigidity, but symptoms may develop more gradually than in viral meningitis
Answer: fever
Flashcard 475: What is the diagnostic investigation for bacterial meningitis? _____
Answer: LP → CSF findings
Flashcard 476: Initial antibiotics for Haemophilus influenzae meningitis is _____
Answer: IV cefotaxime
Flashcard 477: Bacterial meningitis is transmitted through _____ & oral secretions
Answer: respiratory
Flashcard 478: What is the initial step in management for bacterial meningitis in primary care? _____
Answer: Emergency transfer to hospital
Flashcard 479: What is the diagnostic investigation for fungal meningitis? _____
Answer: LP → CSF findings
Flashcard 480: Bacterial meningitis initial empiric antibiotics < 3 months = _____
Answer: IV cefotaxime + amoxicillin
Flashcard 481: Bacterial meningitis initial empiric antibiotics 3 months to 59 years = _____
Answer: IV cefotaxime
Flashcard 482: Classically herniated discs are caused by _____
Answer: lifting a heavy object
Flashcard 483: Bacterial meningitis in infants can present with _____ because of ↑ ICP & inflammation
Answer: bulging fontanelle
Flashcard 484: 95% of herniated discs are incidental findings, only 5% are _____!
Answer: symptomatic
Flashcard 485: For viral meningitis a CSF-_____ is gold-standard for identifying the underlying organism
Answer: PCR
Flashcard 486: Initial antibiotics for meningococcal meningitis is _____
Answer: IV benzylpenicillin or cefotaxime
Flashcard 487: The Cushing reflex is a triad of _____ due to increased intracranial pressure
Answer: hypertension, bradycardia, and respiratory depression
Flashcard 488: What is the diagnostic investigation for viral meningitis? _____
Answer: LP → CSF findings
Flashcard 489: What is the management for bacterial meningitis with non-blanching rash/septicaemia in primary care? _____
Answer: IM/IV ceftriaxone or benzylpenicillin at the earliest opportunity; do not delay emergency transfer to hospital though
Flashcard 490: In a cervical or lumbar disc herniation, the disc typically herniates into the _____, affecting the inferior nerve
Answer: vertebral canal
Flashcard 491: What is the management for confirmed viral meningitis? _____
Answer: Supportive; analgesia (e.g. opioid), antipyretic (e.g. paracetamol, ibuprofen)
Flashcard 492: A patient with spinal cord compression symptoms should be screened for cauda equina symptoms: _____
Answer: Bladder/bowel incontinence Saddle anaesthesia Bilateral leg weakness or pain
Flashcard 493: What is the management for fungal meningitis? Step1: _____ Step 2: Oral fluconazole for 8 weeks until -ve cultures
Answer: IV Amphotericin B & IV flucytosine infusion 2 weeks
Flashcard 494: _____ stain outlines the heavy capsule that surrounds Cryptococci fungi, giving it a unique "halo" appearance
Answer: India ink
Flashcard 495: The most common level to have a herniated disc is _____
Answer: L5/S1
Flashcard 496: What are the most common causes of viral meningitis? _____
Answer: Coxsackievirus, echovirus (enteroviruses) HSV (HSV2>1)
Flashcard 497: _____ meningitis is the most common type of meningitis
Answer: Viral
Flashcard 498: Bacterial meningitis initial empiric antibiotics ≥ 60 years = _____
Answer: IV cefotaxime + amoxicillin
Flashcard 499: _____ refers to meningitis and/or septicaemia caused by Neisseria meningitidis
Answer: Meningococcal disease
Flashcard 500: What is the management for bacterial meningitis without a non-blanching rash/septicaemia in primary care? _____
Answer: Emergency transfer to hospital without antibiotics unless urgent transfer is not possible (remote location or weather conditions)
Flashcard 501: A patient with headache, fever, nuchal rigidity and a non-blanching rash should NOT be given a(n) _____
Answer: lumbar puncture
Flashcard 502: Herniated discs can cause radiculopathy along the _____ nerve
Answer: sciatic
Flashcard 503: _____ is a condition that involves inflammation of the leptomeninges caused by viruses
Answer: Viral meningitis
Flashcard 504: _____ are most susceptible to fungal meningitis, particularly cryptococcal meningitis
Answer: Immunocompromised individuals
Flashcard 505: Meningitis that presents with a _____ is characterstic of Meningococcal septicaemia
Answer: non-blanching rash
Flashcard 506: HSV-_____ can cause viral meningitis in adolescents and adults
Answer: 2
Flashcard 507: Superior vena cava obstruction can cause raised _____ presenting with headache and blurred vision
Answer: ICP
Flashcard 508: Bacterial meningitis is a _____ condition
Answer: rare
Flashcard 509: A herniated disc most commonly happens at ages _____-60 years and affects men 2:1
Answer: 30
Flashcard 510: _____ meningitis is associated with CSF findings: lymphocyte predominance normal/mild ↑ protein normal glucose
Answer: Viral
Flashcard 511: Normal intracranial pressure is _____-15 MMhG
Answer: 7
Flashcard 512: Viral meningitis classically presents with _____, headache, & nuchal rigidity
Answer: fever
Flashcard 513: What is a major cause of delayed morbidity & death 3-10 days after a subarachnoid hemorrhage (30% of patients)? _____
Answer: Vasospasm causing ischaemic infarct
Flashcard 514: NORMAL findings in a non-contrast CT done > _____ hours of symptom onset for subarachnoid haemorrhage → do a lumbar puncture
Answer: 6
Flashcard 515: Diagnosis = _____
Answer: subarachnoid haemorrhage
Flashcard 516: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis affects _____ motor neurons
Answer: upper & lower
Flashcard 517: What other management is used for MND besides riluzole? _____
Answer: Non-invasive ventilation (usually BiPap) at night
Flashcard 518: 6 hours after a subarachnoid haemorrhage the patient may present with _____ due to chemical meningitis
Answer: nuchal rigidity
Flashcard 519: What is the first-line investigation for extradural haematoma? _____
Answer: non-contrast CT
Flashcard 520: Rebleeding is a complication of subarachnoid hemorrhage that typically arises _____
Answer: within 24 hours
Flashcard 521: What is the first-line investigation for subarachnoid haemorrhage? _____
Answer: Urgent non-contrast CT
Flashcard 522: Vasospasm is a complication of subarachnoid hemorrhage that arises _____
Answer: 3-10 days after SAH
Flashcard 523: What is the most common subtype of motor neuron disease? _____
Answer: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) accounts for 80-90% of cases, this includes PBP which is a subtype of ALS
Flashcard 524: What type of brain haemorrhage presents insidiously 4 weeks after the initial injury with headache, somnolence, confusion, and focal neurologic deficits? _____
Answer: Chronic subdural haemorrhage
Flashcard 525: The most common site for a(n) _____ aneurysm is at the junction of the anterior communicating and anterior cerebral arteries
Answer: berry (saccular)
Flashcard 526: What features are almost always spared in motor neuron disease? _____
Answer: sensory symptoms are unaffected, bladder & bowel function is unaffected, occular muscles are unaffected
Flashcard 527: Primary lateral scerlosis affects _____ motor neurons
Answer: upper
Flashcard 528: A(n) _____ is a collection of blood underneath the dura
Answer: subdural haemorrhage (SDH)
Flashcard 529: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis typically begins at _____ levels of the spinal cord
Answer: cervical
Flashcard 530: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis typically presents with progressive muscle weakness & atrophy typically starting in _____
Answer: distal limbs (hands & feet)
Flashcard 531: "worst headache of my life" is suggestive of _____
Answer: subarachnoid hemorrhage
Flashcard 532: ~10% of spontaneous SAH are caused by _____ or an anticoagulated state
Answer: arteriovenous (AV) malformations
Flashcard 533: Does ALS present with symmetric or asymmetric weakness? _____
Answer: Asymmetric
Flashcard 534: Nerve conduction studies for motor neuron disease are _____
Answer: normal (helps exclude neuropathy)
Flashcard 535: What is the management for subdural haemorrhages? Small/incidental cases are managed _____ Large/symptomatic/↑ ICP/midline shift cases are managed surgically (burr hole or craniotomy & clot evacuation)
Answer: conservatively (control ICP)
Flashcard 536: Motor neuron disease onsets at ages _____ to 70 years old
Answer: 40
Flashcard 537: What is the definitive management of an extradural haematoma? _____
Answer: Urgent decompression → craniotomy → burr holes
Flashcard 538: Diagnosis = _____
Answer: Extadural haematoma
Flashcard 539: Primary lateral sclerosis predominantly affects _____ motor neurons typically affecting the lower limbs first
Answer: upper
Flashcard 540: ALS presents with asymmetric flaccid paralysis in the _____ limbs
Answer: upper
Flashcard 541: A(n) _____ describes an intracerebral bleed into the subarachnoid space
Answer: subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH)
Flashcard 542: Subarachnoid haemorrhage is a type of _____ stroke
Answer: haemorrhagic
Flashcard 543: _____ haematoma is characterised by a(n) hyperdense lentiform (biconvex)-shaped collection of blood on CT
Answer: Extradural
Flashcard 544: Large acute subdural haemorrhage and chronic subdural haemorrhage compresses the brain and can cause "mass effect" leading to _____ on CT
Answer: mid-line shift
Flashcard 545: What investigation is done if +ve CT scan for subarachnoid haemorrhage? _____
Answer: CT angiography
Flashcard 546: Motor neuron disease (MND) subtypes include _____, PBP (progressive bulbar palsy), PLS (primary lateral sclerosis), PMA (progressive muscular atrophy)
Answer: ALS (amytropic lateral sclerosis)
Flashcard 547: Subdural haemorrhage is most commonly seen among: _____ alcoholics infants (shaken baby) Patients on anticoagulants
Answer: elderly
Flashcard 548: Progressive muscular atrophy affects _____ motor neurons
Answer: lower
Flashcard 549: There are 2 types of subarachnoid haemorrhage; _____ & spontaneous SAH
Answer: traumatic SAH
Flashcard 550: Progressive bulbar palsy predominantly affects motor neurons in the _____ causing slurred speech & dysphasia
Answer: bulbar region
Flashcard 551: What is the definitive management of aneurysmal subarachnoid haemorrhage? _____ or endovascular coiling
Answer: Neurosurgical clipping
Flashcard 552: _____ subdural hematomas appear hyperdense on CT
Answer: Acute
Flashcard 553: If a lumbar puncture is indicated in SAH is should be performed _____ after symptom onset **bonus, why??
Answer: 12 hours
Flashcard 554: What is the first-line pharmacological management for ALS-MND? _____
Answer: Riluzole (glutamate inhibitor)
Flashcard 555: Mean age of onset for a subarachnoid haemorrhage is _____ years old
Answer: 50
Flashcard 556: ALS presents initially with asymmetric spastic paralysis in the _____ limbs
Answer: lower
Flashcard 557: _____ subdural hematomas appear hypodense on CT
Answer: Chronic
Flashcard 558: There are 3 classifications of subdural haemorrhage; _____, subacute, & chronic
Answer: acute
Flashcard 559: _____ haemorrhages are caused by tearing of bridging veins that lie between the dura & arachonid mater from trauma
Answer: Subdural
Flashcard 560: _____ is used to prevent cerebral vasospasm following a(n) subarachnoid haemorrhage
Answer: Nimodipine (Ca2+ channel blocker)
Flashcard 561: NORMAL findings in a non-contrast CT done < _____ hours of symptom onset for subarachnoid haemorrhage → consider alternative diagnosis
Answer: 6
Flashcard 562: Quick diagnosis = _____
Answer: Chronic subdural haemorrhage
Flashcard 563: 85% of spontaneous SAH are caused by _____
Answer: berry (saccular) aneurysm rupture
Flashcard 564: A _____ classically presents with a sudden-onset "thunderclap headache"
Answer: subarachnoid haemorrhage
Flashcard 565: Progressive bulbar palsy affects _____ motor neurons
Answer: upper & lower
Flashcard 566: How to distinguish between an acute subdural haemorrhage vs epidural haemorrhage on CT? _____
Answer: Acute SDH crosses suture lines, EDH does not
Flashcard 567: Motor neuron disease is diagnosed clinically, but _____ can identify denervation & fibrillation
Answer: electromyography (EMG)
Flashcard 568: _____ is an idiopathic neurological condition that causes upper and lower motor neuron signs
Answer: Motor neuron disease (MND)
Flashcard 569: Which intracranial hemorrhage is most often seen in shaken baby syndrome? _____
Answer: Subdural haemorrhage
Flashcard 570: What is the most dangerous complication of a subarachnoid hemorrhage? _____
Answer: Rebleeding
Flashcard 571: What is the next step management of confirmed subarachnoid haemorrhage? _____
Answer: Refer to neurosurgery!!
Flashcard 572: Subarachnoid hemorrhage is characterized by a(n) _____ spinal tap appearance
Answer: yellow (xanthochromic)
Flashcard 573: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis cause of death is most commonly _____
Answer: respiratory failure due to paralysis of diaphragm
Flashcard 574: Progressive muscular atrophy predominantly affects _____ motor neurons typically affecting the distal limbs first
Answer: lower
Flashcard 575: Chronic subdural haemorrhage is more common in _____ and the elderly due to cerebral atrophy, which stretches the bridging veins
Answer: alcoholics
Flashcard 576: What are 3 modifiable risk factors for subarachnoid haemorrhages? _____
Answer: ↑ BP, smoking, alcohol intake
Flashcard 577: _____ haemorrhage is characterised by a(n) crescent-shaped collection of blood on CT
Answer: Subdural
Flashcard 578: New bleeding on subdural bleeding "acute on chronic" will appear as _____dense areas on non-contrast CT
Answer: hyper
Flashcard 579: What is the first-line investigation for subdural haemorrhage? _____
Answer: CT
Flashcard 580: _____ haematoma is due to a rupture of the middle meningeal artery in 75%* of cases
Answer: Extradural
Flashcard 581: Once trigeminal neuralgia symptoms go into remission, it is recommended to _____
Answer: gradually taper off carbamazepine
Flashcard 582: Stroke involving the _____ can cause lateral medullary (Wallenberg) syndrome
Answer: PICA
Flashcard 583: An _____ haematoma classically presents with a "low-impact" trauma followed by loss of consciousness, a lucid interval, then LOC again
Answer: extradural
Flashcard 584: What are the 3 key concepts of pain relief in palliative care? 1. _____ 2. By the mouth (Give analgesia orally where possible) 3. By the ladder (Follow the WHO analgesic ladder)
Answer: By the clock (Give analgesia on a regular basis)
Flashcard 585: Trigeminal neuralgia is atypical in patients < _____ years old
Answer: 50
Flashcard 586: Trigeminal neuralgia most commonly affects the _____ and/or maxilliary divisions of CN V
Answer: mandibular
Flashcard 587: A 60 year old man complains of extremely severe, sharp, shooting, “like a bolt of lighting”, pain, which lasts about 60 seconds. It is noted that part of his face is unshaven, because he fears to touch that area. What is likely occurring? _____
Answer: Trigeminal neuralgia
Flashcard 588: When can analgesic adjuvants be used in palliative pain management? _____
Answer: WHENEVER - no need to climb the analgesia ladder first
Flashcard 589: The breakthrough dose of morphine is _____ of the daily background dose
Answer: 1/6th
Flashcard 590: Does diagnosis of extradural haematoma require loss of consciousness followed by a lucid interval? _____
Answer: No!
Flashcard 591: Trigeminal neuralgia is commonly triggered by _____ or occurs spontaneously
Answer: light touch
Flashcard 592: _____ syndrome presents with - CN III palsy - Contralateral hemiparesis
Answer: Medial midbrain (Weber's)
Flashcard 593: What non-opioid adjuvants can be used for muscle spasm pain? _____
Answer: Muscle relaxant (e.g. baclofen) or Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam)
Flashcard 594: What is the first-line management for trigeminal neuralgia? _____
Answer: Carbamazepine
Flashcard 595: Atypical trigeminal neuralgia is when there is _____
Answer: constant pain between episodes
Flashcard 596: What imaging should be done for TIA? _____
Answer: Carotid Duplex Ultrasound to identify atherosclerosis of carotid artery DO NOT do a CT head unless there is clinical suspicion of an alternative diagnosis
Flashcard 597: What underlying neurological pathology should be suspected in a patient with bilateral trigeminal neuralgia? _____
Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Flashcard 598: _____ syndrome presents with - Horner's syndrome - Contralateral loss of pain & temperature sensation in torso/limbs - Ipsilateral loss of pain & temperature sensation in face - CN X palsy (dysphagia)
Answer: Lateral medullary (Wallenberg)
Flashcard 599: The _____ supplies the lateral medulla
Answer: posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA)
Flashcard 600: _____ is a disorder affecting CNV causing severe unilateral pain
Answer: Trigeminal neuralgia
Flashcard 601: A 14 year old is hit by a baseball bat on R head. He loses consciousness for a few minutes, but recovers promptly & continues to play. 1hr later he is found unconscious with a R fixed dilated pupil. What is the most likely diagnosis? _____
Answer: Acute extradural haematoma; R side
Flashcard 602: _____ pain is often associated with hyperalgesia
Answer: Neuropathic
Flashcard 603: What is the secondary management of a TIA? _____ & Statin
Answer: Clopidogrel
Flashcard 604: The _____ supplies the midbrain
Answer: posterior cerebral artery
Flashcard 605: What is the next step in primary care if a patient presents with a TIA < 7 days ago? _____
Answer: Aspirin 300mg + referral for urgent assessment by stroke physician within 24 hours
Flashcard 606: What is the next step in primary care if a patient presents with a TIA > 7 days ago? _____
Answer: Referral for specialist assessment by stroke physician within 7 days
Flashcard 607: Stroke involving the _____ can cause medial midbrain (Weber) syndrome
Answer: posterior cerebral artery
Flashcard 608: What non-opioid adjuvants can be used for pain caused by raised ICP? _____
Answer: Corticosteroids (e.g. Dexamethasone)
Flashcard 609: _____ syndrome presents with - Ipsilateral CN VII palsy - Contralateral loss of pain & temperature loss in limb/torso - Vertigo, nystagmus, ataxia
Answer: Lateral pontine
Flashcard 610: Trigeminal neuralgia is primarily caused by by _____
Answer: neurovascular compression of CN V
Flashcard 611: Strokes involving the _____ cerebral artery may cause contralateral homonymous hemianopia
Answer: posterior
Flashcard 612: An examination should only be performed for pain in palliative patients if appropriate OR there are signs of _____
Answer: spinal cord compression
Flashcard 613: Stroke involving the _____ can cause lateral pontine syndrome
Answer: AICA
Flashcard 614: Extradural haemorrhage often presents with a loss of consciousness followed by a(n) _____ interval for up to 48 hours
Answer: lucid
Flashcard 615: What are the steps of the WHO analgesia ladder? 1. _____ 2. Mild opioid (e.g. codeine) +/- adjuvant 3. Strong opioid (e.g. morphine) +/- adjuvant
Answer: Non-opioid (e.g. paracetamol) +/- Adjuvant
Flashcard 616: What is the 1st line pharmacological management of agitation in palliative patients who are not in the terminal phase? _____
Answer: Haloperidol
Flashcard 617: What is the next step if carbamazepine is contraindicated or not treating trigeminal neuralgia? _____
Answer: Refer patient or (doctor) seeks expert advice from a specialist
Flashcard 618: The _____ supplies the medial medulla
Answer: anterior spinal artery (ASA)
Flashcard 619: Trigeminal neuralgia is often described as an "_____" characteristic pain
Answer: electric-shock
Flashcard 620: What non-opioid adjuvants can be used for neuropathic pain? _____
Answer: Tricyclic antidepressants (e.g. amitriptyline) or Anticonvulsants (e.g. gabapentin)
Flashcard 621: Extradural haematoma is classically due to a(n) _____ at the pterion (of the temporal bone)
Answer: fracture
Flashcard 622: A(n) _____ haematoma can present with an ipsilateral dilated pupil due to compression of CN III
Answer: extradural
Flashcard 623: What are the clinical signs of opioid toxicity? _____
Answer: Myoclonus, pin-point pupils, hallucinations, respiratory depression
Flashcard 624: The _____ supplies the medial pons
Answer: basilar artery
Flashcard 625: _____ syndrome presents with - Quadraplegia - Preservation of vertical eye movements & blinking
Answer: Locked in
Flashcard 626: An _____ is when blood collects between the dura mater & skull, often caused by “head injury”
Answer: extradural haematoma
Flashcard 627: The _____ supplies the lateral pons
Answer: anterior inferior cerebellar artery (AICA)
Flashcard 628: Stroke involving the _____ can cause medial medullary syndrome
Answer: ASA
Flashcard 629: Trigeminal neuralgia is more common in _____
Answer: women
Flashcard 630: What is the 1st line pharmacological management of agitation in palliative patients in the terminal phase? _____
Answer: Midazolam
Flashcard 631: Stroke involving the _____ can cause locked-in syndrome
Answer: basilar artery
Flashcard 632: Analgesia may be prescribed as an _____ drug for PRN use in palliative care
Answer: anticipatory
Flashcard 633: What is the most accurate investigation for brain abscess? _____
Answer: Biopsy
Flashcard 634: Strokes involving the _____ cerebral artery may cause aphasia if they occur in the dominant hemisphere
Answer: middle
Flashcard 635: Patients with encephalitis & cold sores may suggest an underlying cause by _____
Answer: HSV-1
Flashcard 636: Triad of symptoms for a brain abscess are _____, focal neurological deficits, & fever
Answer: headaches (dull, constant, progressively worsening ± localised)
Flashcard 637: The most common cause of cerebral abscesses in HIV patients is _____
Answer: toxoplasmosis (protozoa)
Flashcard 638: Patients with brain abscess and massive cerebral oedema on CT should also be given _____
Answer: IV dexamethasone
Flashcard 639: Encephalitis then progresses to _____: AMS/confusion, seizures, & dysphasia
Answer: parenchymal signs
Flashcard 640: Which cerebral artery supplies the anterior limb of the internal capsule? _____
Answer: Anterior cerebral artery
Flashcard 641: HSV-1 is associated with _____ & frontal lobe encephalitis
Answer: temporal
Flashcard 642: What factor best predicts the outcome in encephalitis? _____
Answer: Early initiation of IV aciclovir; mortality is ~10-20% if treated promptly, ~70-80% if left untreated
Flashcard 643: Essential tremors typically affects the _____ but can progress over a long time to involve the trunk, voice, & head
Answer: hands & arms
Flashcard 644: What investigation should be done prior to lumbar puncture for suspected encephalitis? _____
Answer: CT scan; helps identify ↑ ICP and rule out space-occupying lesions, strokes, basilar fractures
Flashcard 645: Patients with encephalitis & hydrophobia, hallucinations, anxiety may suggest an underlying cause of _____
Answer: Rabies
Flashcard 646: Which anterior circulation stroke causes paralysis/sensory loss of the face and upper limb without cortical signs (e.g. aphasia, neglect)? _____
Answer: Lacunar stroke
Flashcard 647: _____ is a chronic neurological disorder characterised by a bilateral action tremor, most commonly in the hands & forearms, without other neurological deficits
Answer: Essential tremor
Flashcard 648: Risk factors for brain abscess in a child: _____ Mastoiditis Dental infection Sinusitis Cyanotic heart disease
Answer: Otitis media
Flashcard 649: Essential tremors have a bimodal distribution in _____-40 year olds and >60 year olds
Answer: 20
Flashcard 650: TIAs typically resolve completely within _____
Answer: 1 hour
Flashcard 651: What is the likely diagnosis in a child with a history of tetralogy of Fallot and recurrent sinusitis that presents with a two-week history of worsening morning headaches, fever, focal neurological deficits, and a recent first-time seizure? _____
Answer: Brain abscess
Flashcard 652: Symptoms of a _____ last for ≥ 24 hours Symptoms of a TIA last for < 24 hours
Answer: stroke
Flashcard 653: Does an essential tremor limit functional capacity? _____
Answer: In some it can be severe and disruptive
Flashcard 654: Lumbar puncture is not done for suspected brain abscess because 1. _____ 2. CSF is not diagnostically useful in most cases
Answer: possibility of herniation (esp. with ↑ ICP - absolute contraindication)
Flashcard 655: Essentials tremors are typically _____ tremors
Answer: action
Flashcard 656: How is essential tremor diagnosed? _____
Answer: Thorough history & examination to exclude other diagnosis
Flashcard 657: Anxiety & excitement _____ essential tremors
Answer: exacerbates
Flashcard 658: Herpes encephalitis presents with the following on CSF analysis: _____ lymphocytes and RBCs normal glucose ↑ protein
Answer: ↑
Flashcard 659: Why are children with cyanotic congenital heart disease (e.g. tetralogy of Fallot) at an increased risk for brain abscess? _____
Answer: R → L shunting of venous blood allows bacteria to bypass the pulmonary circulation and hematogenously spread
Flashcard 660: Strokes involving the _____ may cause contralateral sensory abnormalities because it supplies the thalamus
Answer: posterior cerebral artery (PCA)
Flashcard 661: Which cerebral artery supplies the superior ~1 inch of the frontal/parietal cortex? _____
Answer: Anterior cerebral artery
Flashcard 662: Strokes involving the _____ cerebral artery may cause hemineglect if they occur in the non-dominant hemisphere
Answer: middle
Flashcard 663: Brain abscess is often visualized on CT or MRI as a(n) _____ lesion with central necrosis
Answer: ring-enhancing
Flashcard 664: How do you differentiate between a brain abscess & tumour without biopsy? _____
Answer: You can't
Flashcard 665: What is the management for encephalitis? _____ IV antibiotics (meningitis cover)
Answer: Immediate IV aciclovir for 2-3 weeks (HSV cover)
Flashcard 666: Patients with encephalitis & parotid gland swelling may suggest an underlying cause of _____
Answer: mumps
Flashcard 667: Essential tremors _____ with age
Answer: worsen
Flashcard 668: Which anterior circulation stroke causes paralysis/sensory loss of the face and upper limb with cortical signs (e.g. aphasia, neglect)? _____
Answer: Middle cerebral artery stroke
Flashcard 669: Patients with encephalitis & travel history to rice fields in Asia may suggest an underlying cause of _____
Answer: Japanese encephalitis virus
Flashcard 670: Encephalitis often presents first with _____: fever, headache, neck stiffness, & vomiting
Answer: meningeal signs
Flashcard 671: The aetiology of essential tremors is unclear, but may be linked to _____, genetics, & environmental factors
Answer: age
Flashcard 672: A _____ is a life-threatening condition involving a localised, infectious collection of pus within the brain parenchyma, often encapsulated by a fibrous capsule
Answer: brain abscess
Flashcard 673: Strokes involving the _____ cerebral artery may cause paralysis and sensory loss of the contralateral upper limb and face
Answer: middle
Flashcard 674: Surgical management of brain abscess Mainstay = _____ Larger, multiloculated, or recurrent = craniotomy
Answer: burr hole
Flashcard 675: Which cerebral artery supplies the occipital lobe? _____
Answer: Posterior cerebral artery
Flashcard 676: Which cerebral artery supplies the language centers (Broca area, Wernicke area)? _____
Answer: Middle cerebral artery
Flashcard 677: What surgical mangement can be offered in severe essential tremor? _____ & thalamotomy for severe cases Botulinum toxin injections for head/neck tremors
Answer: Deep brain stimulation
Flashcard 678: ~50% of brain abscesses originate from _____
Answer: infection of adjacent structure (e.g. otitis media, mastoiditis, dental infection, sinusitis)
Flashcard 679: What is the empiric antibiotic therapy for brain abscess suspected Streptococcus spp. or Staphyloccal infection? _____
Answer: Ceftriaxone & metronidazole (vancomycin if ↑ risk of MRSA)
Flashcard 680: What are the first-line pharmacological management for essential tremor? _____ or primidone
Answer: Propranolol
Flashcard 681: What are the main principles of management for brain abscess? _____ Surgical therapy → burr hole drainage / craniotomy if larger, multiloculated abscesses
Answer: Antibiotic therapy → initial then guided by cultures
Flashcard 682: Viral encephalitis in neonates is more commonly caused by _____
Answer: HSV-2
Flashcard 683: Essential tremors are typically _____
Answer: bilateral
Flashcard 684: Which cerebral artery supplies most of the lateral surface of the cerebral hemisphere? _____
Answer: Middle cerebral artery
Flashcard 685: Which cerebral artery supplies the anterior four-fifths of the corpus callosum? _____
Answer: Anterior cerebral artery
Flashcard 686: What is the differential diagnosis of ring-enhancing brain lesions on CT/MRI? _____
Answer: GLAM GBM, lymphoma, abscess, metastasis
Flashcard 687: What is the best initial test for suspected brain abscess? _____
Answer: CT with contrast (pre & post)
Flashcard 688: Encephalitis is most commonly caused by _____
Answer: HSV-1
Flashcard 689: Patients my refer to TIAs as "_____"
Answer: mini-strokes
Flashcard 690: TIAs are now described as brief neurological impairment from cerebral, spinal, or retinal ischaemia _____
Answer: WITHOUT acute infarction
Flashcard 691: Strokes involving the _____ cerebral artery may cause paralysis and sensory loss of the contralateral lower limb
Answer: anterior
Flashcard 692: What is the best investigation for suspected encephalitis? _____
Answer: LP & CSF analysis; cells, protein, glucose & virology PCR
Flashcard 693: Brain abscesses have a _____ onset
Answer: sudden or subacute (weeks)
Flashcard 694: Which cerebral artery supplies the inferior temporal lobe? _____
Answer: Posterior cerebral artery
Flashcard 695: The language centers are found in the "dominant" hemisphere, which is most commonly the _____ hemisphere (80%)
Answer: left
Flashcard 696: Nausea/vomiting, headache and focal neuro deficits following otitis media is suggestive of _____
Answer: brain abscess
Flashcard 697: The most common microorganisms that cause brain abscesses are _____ & Viridans streptococci
Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Flashcard 698: What symptom/clinical sign helps differentiate meningitis, encephalitis from brain abscesses? _____
Answer: Focal neurological deficits
Flashcard 699: Drinking alcohol _____ essential tremors
Answer: relieves
Flashcard 700: Which cerebral artery supplies the medial surface of the frontal/parietal lobes? _____
Answer: Anterior cerebral artery
Flashcard 701: A _____ is a temporary (< 24 hours) episode of neurological dysfunction caused by focal cerebral, spinal, or retinal ischaemia without acute infarction
Answer: transient ischaemic attack (TIA)
Flashcard 702: Which main cerebral artery supplies the genu/posterior limb of the internal capsule? _____
Answer: Middle cerebral artery
Flashcard 703: _____ can be used to treat nausea & vomiting caused by vestibular mechanisms
Answer: cyclizine
Flashcard 704: Nausea and vomiting in palliative patients mediated by raised ICP may be caused by _____
Answer: Cerebral metastases
Flashcard 705: Nausea and vomiting in palliative patients mediated by _____ may be caused by activation of acetylcholine and H1, opioids or base of skull tumours
Answer: Vestibular mechanisms
Flashcard 706: Nausea and vomiting in palliative patients mediated by cortical mechanisms can be related to _____ receptors in the cerebral cortex
Answer: GABA and H1
Flashcard 707: If nausea & vomiting is caused by cortical mechanisms then a short-acting _____ may be used
Answer: benzodiazepine (e.g. lorazepam)
Flashcard 708: High intensity statins should be started _____ after an ischaemic stroke
Answer: 48 hours
Flashcard 709: First line investigation for stroke? _____
Answer: Non-contrast CT head
Flashcard 710: _____ of brain tissue on CT head is suggestive of a haemorrhagic stroke
Answer: Hyperattenuation (brightness)
Flashcard 711: Patients with a history suggestive of a stroke should have what inital investigations to rule out main differentials? _____ & ECG
Answer: Blood glucose
Flashcard 712: Management of haemorrhagic stroke with no comorbidities: _____ and referral to stroke unit
Answer: Stabilisation
Flashcard 713: Stroke patients with a 'hyperdense artery' on CT head are likely to have a _____ in this region
Answer: clot
Flashcard 714: Losing consciousness is generally _____ in strokes, as they often affect a localised brain area
Answer: uncommon
Flashcard 715: Anticoagulants should not be restarted until _____ days since the onset of an ischaemic stroke
Answer: 14
Flashcard 716: Initial management of ischaemic strokes within 4.5 hours: _____, thrombolysis (alteplase), statin (after 48hrs)
Answer: Aspirin 300mg
Flashcard 717: Previous intracranial haemorrhage, active bleeding, and uncontrolled HTN are all contraindications for _____
Answer: thrombolysis
Flashcard 718: The symptoms of a stroke lasts _____, whereas a TIA lasts <24 hours
Answer: >24 hours
Flashcard 719: Symptoms _____ completely resolve in patients who have had a TIA
Answer: will
Flashcard 720: Which 2 screening tools can be used to aid stroke diagnosis? _____ & ROSIER score
Answer: FAST
Flashcard 721: What is the secondary prevention for ischaemic stroke? _____ & Statin
Answer: Clopidogrel
Flashcard 722: Initial medical managment of all ischaemic strokes: _____
Answer: Aspirin 300mg
Flashcard 723: _____ of brain tissue on CT head is suggestive of a ischaemic stroke
Answer: Hypoattenuation (darkness)
Flashcard 724: _____ is the only anti-emetic that is safe to use in parkinson's disease
Answer: Domperidone
Flashcard 725: The most serious adverse effect of ethambutol use is _____, characterized by loss of visual acuity and red-green colorblindness
Answer: optic neuritis
Flashcard 726: Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy, what can be given as prophylaxis against this side effect? _____
Answer: Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)
Flashcard 727: _____, ataxia, and paresthesias are common side-effects of Isoniazid therapy for Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Answer: Peripheral neuropathy
Flashcard 728: What is the most serious complication of tuberuclosis? _____
Answer: Tuberculosis meningitis
Flashcard 729: Unmodifiable risk factors for stroke include _____, ethnicity, diabetes, hypercholesterolaemia
Answer: age
Flashcard 730: The Oxford Stroke Classification defines criteria for stroke: _____ Homonymous hemianopia Higher cerebral dysfunction (e.g., dysphasia, visuospatial disorder).
Answer: Unilateral hemiparesis (and/or hemiparesthesia) of the face, arm, and leg
Flashcard 731: Modifiable risk factors for stroke include _____, hypertension, obesity, diabetes, hypercholesterolaemia
Answer: smoking
Flashcard 732: Neural tissue of the brain is completely dependent on _____ respiration
Answer: aerobic
Flashcard 733: Strokes can be broadly catagorised into two groups based on their mechanism: _____ & ischaemic
Answer: haemorrhagic
Flashcard 734: 87% of strokes are _____ 13% of strokes are haemorrhagic
Answer: ischaemic
Flashcard 735: Brainstem infarcts can cause severe symptoms such as _____ and locked-in-syndrome
Answer: quadriplegia
Flashcard 736: The 2 subtypes of haemorrhagic stroke are _____ and subarachnoid haemorrhage
Answer: intracerebral haemorrhage
Flashcard 737: The 2 subtypes of ischaemic strokes are _____ and embolic
Answer: thrombotic
Flashcard 738: Lacuna infarcts are small infarcts located around the _____, internal capsule, pons and thalamus
Answer: basal ganglia
Flashcard 739: Sarcoidosis is associated with _____, a type of facial paralysis
Answer: Bell palsy
Flashcard 740: An MRI in vascular dementia might reveal _____
Answer: evidence of a recent stroke, lacunar infarcts, or/and multiple infarcts
Flashcard 741: Vascular dementia can rarely be caused by _____ mutation (autosomal dominant)
Answer: CADASIL
Flashcard 742: Neuropathic ulcers are caused by _____
Answer: peripheral neuropathy
Flashcard 743: Neuropathic ulcers are most commonly found on _____
Answer: pressure points
Flashcard 744: Borders of neuropathic ulcers are _____
Answer: regular
Flashcard 745: Sensation and pain are _____ in neuropathic ulcers
Answer: not intact
Flashcard 746: Neuropathic ulcers often have a _____ appearance
Answer: 'punched out'
Flashcard 747: Neuropathic ulcers are typically a _____ colour
Answer: yellowy
Flashcard 748: Is red blood cell transketolase activity increased or decreased in Wernicke's Encephalopathy? _____
Answer: Decreased
Flashcard 749: Wernicke's encephalopathy is caused by a _____
Answer: thiamine (B1) deficiency
Flashcard 750: What is the management of Wernicke's Encephalopathy? _____
Answer: High-dose IV thiamine
Flashcard 751: A triad of _____, ataxia and encephalopathy would indicate what condition? Wernicke's encephalopathy
Answer: ophthalmoplegia/nystagmus
Flashcard 752: Confusion, disorientation, indifference and inattentiveness suggest presence of which feature of Wernicke's Encephalopathy? _____
Answer: Encephalopathy
Flashcard 753: _____ is the most common ocular sign of Wernicke's Encephalopathy
Answer: Nystagmus
Flashcard 754: What should be given to individuals at high risk of developing Wernicke's Encephalopathy? _____
Answer: Prophylactic oral thiamine
Flashcard 755: What investigations would you do for suspected Wernicke's Encephalopathy? • _____ • RBC transketolase activity
Answer: MRI
Flashcard 756: In Wernicke's encephalopathy, the _____ and ventricle walls of the brain are affected by petechial haemorrhages
Answer: mamillary bodies
Flashcard 757: _____ syndrome features are confabulations, anterograde amnesia, & retrograde amnesia
Answer: Korsakoff
Flashcard 758: Korsakoff syndrome is caused by _____ deficiency & follows after wernicke's encephalopathy
Answer: thiamine
Keywords: Neurology flashcards, medical flashcards, NEET PG preparation, USMLE Step 1 flashcards, Anki alternative, spaced repetition medical, OnCourse flashcards
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