Cardiology — Flashcards

Flashcard 1: In patients with hypertension and what comorbidity should ACE inhibitors / ARBs become first line? _____

Answer: Hypertension with Diabetes Mellitus

Flashcard 2: Electric cardioversion is _____effective in the management of Multifocal atrial tachycardia

Answer: in

Flashcard 3: What pathology is indicated on the ECG below? _____

Answer: 1st degree AV block

Flashcard 4: What pathology is indicated on the ECG below? _____

Answer: 2nd degree AV block, Mobitz type II

Flashcard 5: What pathology is indicated on the ECG below? _____

Answer: Ventricular fibrillation

Flashcard 6: _____ wave is commonly seen in patients with arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC).

Answer: Epsilon

Flashcard 7: What pathology is indicated on the ECG below? _____

Answer: 2nd degree AV block, Mobitz type I (Wenckebach)

Flashcard 8: What pathology is indicated on the ECG below? _____

Answer: Atrial fibrillation

Flashcard 9: The given ECG shows ventricular _____, and the blue arrows indicate _____

Answer: tachycardia

Flashcard 10: What pathology is indicated on the ECG below? _____

Answer: Atrial flutter

Flashcard 11: What pathology is indicated on the ECG below? _____

Answer: 3rd degree AV block

Flashcard 12: Bradycardia treatment algorithm: No answer _____

Answer: :)

Flashcard 13: be6b875edd77406e88eba674189c4434-ao-2

Answer: trials and studies for cardiovascular diseases

Extra: 

Flashcard 14: be6b875edd77406e88eba674189c4434-ao-1

Answer: trials and studies for cardiovascular diseases

Extra: 

Flashcard 15: be6b875edd77406e88eba674189c4434-ao-3

Answer: trials and studies for cardiovascular diseases

Extra: 

Flashcard 16: _____ years age group is mc affected in RHD

Answer: 5 to 15

Extra: 

Flashcard 17: Homocystinuria causes increased risk for _____ and atherosclerosis, which may cause stroke and MI

Answer: thrombosis

Flashcard 18: LDH levels rise _____ hours after an MI and peak at 3-6 days

Answer: 24

Flashcard 19: One complication of _____ is high-output heart failure due to formation of AV shunts in bone

Answer: Paget disease of bone

Flashcard 20: A pericardial knock is a brief, high frequency, precordial sound heard in early _____ in patients with constrictive pericarditis

Answer: diastole

Flashcard 21: According to the American heart association and Europian cardiac society, high-risk cardiac lesions include:_____ cyanotic congenital heart disease, including palliative shunts or conduits.

Answer: Unrepaired

Flashcard 22: Hypertension is defined as persistent systolic BP > _____ mmHg and/or diastolic BP > 80 mmHg

Answer: 130

Flashcard 23: _____ anemia may be seen with prosthetic heart valves and aortic stenosis Extra: name of the syndrome?

Answer: Macroangiopathic hemolytic

Flashcard 24: Cardiovascular manifestations of lupus include accelerated _____, small-vessel necrotizing vasculitis, pericarditis, and libman-sacks endocarditis

Answer: atherosclerosis

Flashcard 25: In regards to the development of infective endocarditis; _____ is the most common underlying valvular disease in developed countries, whereas rheumatic heart disease is the most common underlying valvular disease in non-developed countries

Answer: mitral valve prolapse

Flashcard 26: The most common risk factors for atrial fibrillation include _____ and coronary artery disease (CAD)

Answer: hypertension

Flashcard 27: According to the American heart association and Europian cardiac society, high-risk cardiac lesions include:Incompletely repaired congenital heart disease with residual _____ or valvular regurgitation.

Answer: shunt

Flashcard 28: _____ is a complication that may occur months after an MI and increases risk for mural thrombus

Answer: True ventricular aneurysm

Flashcard 29: _____ beriberi is characterized by high-output cardiac failure (dilated cardiomyopathy) and edema +/- dry beriberi symptoms

Answer: Wet

Flashcard 30: _____ is a virus that causes myocarditis which progresses to dilated cardiomyopathy

Answer: Coxsackie B

Flashcard 31: A _____ interval between A2 (of S2) and the opening snap sounds of a mitral stenosis murmur correlates with increased disease severity

Answer: decreased

Flashcard 32: One complication that may occur _____ - 5 days post-MI is interventricular septal rupture, which causes a ventricular septal defect (VSD)

Answer: 3

Flashcard 33: _____ angina is due to rupture of atherosclerotic plaque with thrombosis and incomplete occlusion of a coronary artery

Answer: Unstable

Flashcard 34: In _____, pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) is greater than LV end diastolic pressure

Answer: mitral stenosis

Flashcard 35: Hemochromatosis can cause _____ cardiomyopathy or dilated cardiomyopathy

Answer: restrictive

Flashcard 36: _____-capillary pulmonary hypertension also called as pulmonary hypertension involves group 2-5 of WHO classification

Answer: Post

Flashcard 37: _____ syndrome occurs when administration of vasodilators shunts blood towards well-perfused areas, increasing ischemia in post-stenotic regions

Answer: Coronary steal

Flashcard 38: In addition to _____, the presence or absence of valvular disease/residual heart disease also determines the duration of secondary prophylaxis in a patient of ARF.

Answer: carditis

Flashcard 39: 2nd degree Mobitz type I AV block is characterized by a _____, irregular patterned rhythm on ECG

Answer: regularly

Flashcard 40: Aortic _____ may present with a bounding pulse (Corrigan / Water-hammer pulse), pulsating nail bed (Quincke pulse), and head bobbing when severe

Answer: regurgitation

Flashcard 41: Aortic _____ may cause macroangiopathic hemolytic anemia as RBCs are damaged while crossing the calcified valve, producing schistocytes

Answer: stenosis

Flashcard 42: Cardiac symptoms of Corynebacterium diphtheriae infection include _____, arrhythmia, and heart block

Answer: myocarditis

Flashcard 43: Aortic dissection may present with sudden sharp, tearing _____ pain that radiates to the back

Answer: chest

Flashcard 44: A dicrotic pulse typically occurs in patients with severe _____ dysfunction and low systemic arterial resistance

Answer: systolic

Flashcard 45: Patients with acute _____ heart failure typically present with progressive dyspnea, orthopnea, lower extremity edema, along with bilateral crackles / wheezing (known as cardiac asthma)

Answer: decompensated

Flashcard 46: Pre-capillary pulmonary hypertension/PAH has _____ PCWP and PVR more than 3 wood units

Answer: decreased

Flashcard 47: Eisenmenger syndrome is characterized by a triad of _____, clubbing, and polycythemia

Answer: late cyanosis

Flashcard 48: Stable angina is often relieved by _____ or with nitroglycerin

Answer: rest

Flashcard 49: Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome presents with a _____ QRS complex and shortened PR interval on ECG

Answer: widened

Flashcard 50: Ventricular _____ is a contained free wall rupture that may occur 3 - 14 days post-MI

Answer: pseudo-aneurysm

Flashcard 51: _____ is a post-MI complication that presents as chest pain with friction rub

Answer: Fibrinous pericarditis

Flashcard 52: _____ angina is characterized by episodic chest pain during rest due to coronary artery spasm

Answer: Vasospastic (variant/prinzmetal)

Flashcard 53: _____ is unique in that vegetations typically present on both side(s) of the mitral valve, resulting in regurgitation

Answer: Libman-Sacks (verrucous) endocarditis

Flashcard 54: The most important treatment for STEMI is _____ therapy, such as angioplasty (preferred) or fibrinolysis

Answer: reperfusion

Flashcard 55: Post-capillary pulmonary hypertension has _____ PCWP and PVR less than 3 wood units

Answer: increased

Flashcard 56: In Heyde syndrome, the stenotic aortic valve causes passing vWF to _____, making it available to be degraded by ADAMTS13 in the vasculature

Answer: uncoil

Flashcard 57: -blockers are useful in the management of _____ and dilated cardiomyopathy

Answer: hypertrophic obstructive

Flashcard 58: Kussmaul sign (increased JVP on inspiration) may be seen with constrictive _____ and restrictive cardiomyopathies

Answer: pericarditis

Flashcard 59: _____ P wave (amplitude > 5 mm) is associated with a dilated right atrium

Answer: Himalayan

Flashcard 60: Cardiovascular (Antiarrhythmics) _____-kalemia induced arrhythmias may present on ECG with peaked T waves and a shortened QT interval

Answer: Hyper

Flashcard 61: Troponin I levels rise _____ hours after an MI and peak at 24 hours

Answer: 2-4

Flashcard 62: _____ is an inflammatory post-MI complication that occurs after 2* to 4* days

Answer: Fibrinous pericarditis

Flashcard 63: Myocardial infarction induced acute left ventricular failure can result in rapid onset _____ and acute pulmonary edema

Answer: pulmonary venous hypertension

Flashcard 64: Acute _____ causes include idiopathic (most common; presumed viral), confirmed infection (e.g. Coxsackievirus), neoplasia, autoimmune (e.g. SLE, rheumatoid arthritis), uremia, cardiovascular (acute STEMI or Dressler syndrome), radiation therapy

Answer: pericarditis

Flashcard 65: A hyperkinetic pulse can occur with _____ and high-output conditions

Answer: aortic regurgitation

Flashcard 66: The _____ form of coarctation of the aorta is associated with a PDA

Answer: infantile/Preductal

Flashcard 67: Coarctation of the aorta is associated with a _____ aortic valve and an increased risk of developing berry aneurysms

Answer: bicuspid

Flashcard 68: _____ heart failure may cause painful hepatosplenomegaly, which rarely may progress to "cardiac cirrhosis"

Answer: Right

Flashcard 69: _____ heart failure may present with paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, which is breathless awakening from sleep

Answer: Left

Flashcard 70: Ivabradine is indicated for chronic _____ with reduced ejection fraction

Answer: Heart Failure

Flashcard 71: Atrial _____ typically has a 4:1 'sawtooth' pattern appearance on ECG

Answer: flutter

Flashcard 72: Stanford type _____ dissections, involving only the descending aorta, distal to the subclavian artery are also classified as DeBakey type III

Answer: B

Flashcard 73: Normally, A2 > P2 because the left sided system is _____ pressure than right; P2 can > A2 thus in pulmonary hypertension

Answer: higher

Flashcard 74: A murmur due to _____ may radiate to the axilla

Answer: mitral regurgitation

Flashcard 75: _____ AV block is characterized by progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a beat is "dropped"

Answer: 2nd degree Mobitz type I (Wenckebach)

Flashcard 76: _____ syndrome is an autoimmune phenomenom that results in fibrinous pericarditis following an MI

Answer: Dressler

Flashcard 77: Cardiac tamponade may be associated with _____, which is a decrease in amplitude of systolic BP > 10 mmHG during inspiration

Answer: pulsus paradoxus

Flashcard 78: _____ syndrome presents with an ECG pattern of pseudo-right bundle branch block and ST elevations in leads V1 - V3

Answer: Brugada

Flashcard 79: IV Ca2+ channel blockers such as _____ and clevidipine may be used in hypertensive emergency

Answer: nicardipine

Flashcard 80: _____ is a cardiac complication caused byGroup D Streptococci (Enterococcus faecalis and Enterococcus faecium) following GI/GU procedures.

Answer: Subacute endocarditis

Flashcard 81: Ebstein anomaly is associated with tricuspid _____ and right heart failure

Answer: regurgitation

Flashcard 82: Cardiac _____ usually form a pedunculated mass in the left atrium (80%), which may cause syncope due to obstruction of the mitral valve

Answer: myxomas

Flashcard 83: One possible complication of mitral stenosis is pulmonary _____ and eventual right-sided heart failure

Answer: hypertension

Flashcard 84: _____ heart failure may cause jugular venous distension due to increased systemic venous pressure

Answer: Right

Flashcard 85: Beta blockers must be used cautiously in _____ and are contraindicated in cardiogenic shock

Answer: decompensated HF

Flashcard 86: Stable angina is often due to _____ of coronary arteries with >70% stenosis

Answer: atherosclerosis

Flashcard 87: There is an increased risk for _____ papillary muscle rupture (post-MI) due to its single blood supply from the posterior descending artery

Answer: posteromedial

Flashcard 88: Acute _____ commonly presents with sharp pain that is aggravated by inspiration and relieved by sitting up and leaning forward

Answer: pericarditis

Flashcard 89: _____ syndrome is voice hoarseness due to RLN palsy secondary to LAE seen in Mitral stenosis

Answer: Ortner

Flashcard 90: ECG changes associated with acute _____ include widespread, diffuse ST segment elevation and/or PR depression

Answer: pericarditis

Flashcard 91: Known triggers of Vasospastic angina include _____, cocaine, and triptans

Answer: tobacco

Flashcard 92: _____ angina is characterized by chest pain that arises with exertion or emotional stress

Answer: Stable

Flashcard 93: Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension (DASH) eating plan decreases the _____ BP by 8-14 mm Hg

Answer: Systolic

Flashcard 94: While the presentation of myocarditis is highly variable, it can include fever, dyspnea, chest pain, and characteristically a persistent _____ out of proportion to fever

Answer: tachycardia

Flashcard 95: _____ degree AV block is characterized by a PR interval > 200 msec on ECG

Answer: 1st

Flashcard 96: _____ is a cardiac biomarker that is useful for detecting reinfarction following acute MI

Answer: Troponin T

Flashcard 97: _____ cardiomyopathy is associated with sudden death in young athletes due to ventricular arrhythmia

Answer: Hypertrophic

Flashcard 98: Isolated systolic hypertension can occur in _____, severe aortic regurgitation, or systemic causes (anemia, hyperthyroidism)

Answer: aging

Flashcard 99: _____ presents with a midsystolic click and late systolic murmur.

Answer: Mitral valve prolapse (MVP)

Flashcard 100: Patients with BP > _____/10 mmHg above goal should use two antihypertensives

Answer: 20

Flashcard 101: Falsely _____ BNP values can be seen in heart failure, obese patients and flash pulmonary edema

Answer: low

Flashcard 102: The U wave on ECG is prominent in _____ and bradycardia

Answer: hypokalemia

Flashcard 103: A bicuspid aortic valve presents with a soft systolic early ejection murmur that radiates to the _____ with a high frequency ejection click

Answer: neck

Flashcard 104: Atrial fibrillation is characterized by an _____, irregular patterned rhythm

Answer: irregularly

Flashcard 105: _____ syndrome is due to an abnormally fast accessory conduction pathway from the atria to ventricle via the bundle of Kent, which bypasses the slower AV node

Answer: Wolff-Parkinson-White

Flashcard 106: Coarctation of the aorta in adults presents as _____ in the upper extremities and hypotension in the lower extremities

Answer: hypertension

Flashcard 107: _____ sign is increased jugular venous pressure on inspiration

Answer: Kussmaul

Flashcard 108: One complication that may occur _____ - 7 days post-MI is papillary muscle rupture, which often causes mitral regurgitation

Answer: 2

Flashcard 109: _____ with ASD forms part of Lutembacher syndrome

Answer: Mitral stenosis

Flashcard 110: _____ heart failure may present with orthopnea, which is shortness of breath when supine

Answer: Left

Flashcard 111: _____ is characterized by a chaotic and erratic baseline with no discrete P waves in between irregularly spaced QRS complexes on ECG

Answer: Atrial fibrillation

Flashcard 112: Carcinoid syndrome may cause right-sided valvular heart lesions such as _____ and pulmonic stenosis

Answer: tricuspid regurgitation

Flashcard 113: CK-MB levels rise _____ hours after an MI and peak at 16-24 hours

Answer: 2-4

Flashcard 114: One clinical feature of aortic _____ is hyperdynamic circulation due to increased (widened) pulse pressure

Answer: regurgitation

Flashcard 115: _____ is due to occlusion of arteries, most commonly due to atherosclerosis or other artery specific inflammatory processes

Answer: Arterial Insufficiency (Peripheral Artery Disease)

Flashcard 116: Atrial septal defect (ASD) results in a _____-to-right shunt

Answer: left

Flashcard 117: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy causes _____ with exercise due to subaortic hypertrophy of the ventricular septum, resulting in functional aortic stenosis

Answer: syncope

Flashcard 118: Stable angina often presents with chest pain lasting _____ minutes that radiates to the left arm or jaw

Answer: < 20

Flashcard 119: Aortic aneurysm may cause _____ and/or back pain, which is a sign of leaking, dissection, or imminent rupture

Answer: abdominal

Flashcard 120: _____ cardiomyopathy presents with a low-voltage EKG with a diminished QRS amplitude

Answer: Restrictive

Flashcard 121: Orthopnea in congestive heart failure is due to reservoir function of _____ and lymphatics

Answer: pulmonary veins

Flashcard 122: In acute mitral regurgitation, how do the following change?- preload = _____- afterload = decrease- ejection fraction = significantly increase- forward stroke volume = decrease

Answer: significantly increase

Flashcard 123: In ostium _____ ASD defect there is left to right shunting of blood along with mitral insufficiency

Answer: primum

Flashcard 124: Complications of myocarditis include arrhythmias, heart failure, _____ shock and dilated cardiomyopathy

Answer: cardiogenic

Flashcard 125: American heart association and Europian cardiac society have recommended antibiotic prophylaxis for patients undergoing an _____ dental procedure

Answer: invasive

Flashcard 126: _____calcemia will lead to shortening of QT interval and decrease in ST segment duration on ECG

Answer: Hyper

Flashcard 127: Widened QRS complex are present when the serum potassium levels are _____ mmol/L

Answer: 7.0-8.0

Flashcard 128: Reduction of weight (maintaining within normal BMI range) reduces the systolic BP by _____ mmHg/10kg wt loss

Answer: 5-20

Flashcard 129: What is the rx of choice in a patient of atrial fibrillation with normal hemodynamic status?_____

Answer: IV ibutilide

Flashcard 130: According to the 2020 update of CEAP classification, healed ulcer is classified as _____

Answer: C5

Flashcard 131: In adults, the most common electrical mechanism for cardiac arrest is _____

Answer: asystole

Flashcard 132: In patients with mechanical heart valves, the target INR for patients on warfarin therapy is _____.

Answer: 2.53.5

Flashcard 133: Cannon "a" waves on JVP are seen in _____

Answer: AV dissociation

Flashcard 134: Which supraventricular tachycardia will present with retrograde P-waves after a narrow QRS complex and RP interval?_____

Answer: Orthodromic AVRT

Flashcard 135: Ankle brachial index

Answer: Ankle brachial index

Flashcard 136: The most common cause behind sudden cardiac death is an _____

Answer: infarction

Flashcard 137: _____ is the most common underlying etiology of left-sided diastolic heart failure.

Answer: Hypertension

Flashcard 138: The single most important long-term limitation of cardiac transplantation is _____.

Answer: allograft arteriopathy

Flashcard 139: What is the best treatment of a patient of supraventricular tachycardia in case of hemodynamic instability? _____

Answer: DC cardioversion

Flashcard 140: The Doppler waveform of the venous blood flow in lower limb deep vein thrombosis is _____phasic.

Answer: mono

Flashcard 141: What is the rx of choice in a patient of atrial fibrillation with deteriorated hemodynamic status?_____

Answer: DC cardioversion

Flashcard 142: What is the initial mx of a patient with Stanford A dissection?_____

Answer: Beta-blocker rx

Flashcard 143: Effect of valvular diseases on PV loop:The pressure-volume curve is increased in width with decreased height in _____

Answer: mitral regurgitation

Flashcard 144: Ventricular tachycardia (VT) is defined as e 3 consecutive premature ventricular contractions at a rate of >_____/min

Answer: 100

Flashcard 145: _____ score is used to assess the risk of stroke in patients who have atrial fibrillation

Answer: CHA2DS2-VASc

Flashcard 146: Mild ST changes may be seen in the _____ leads in pregnancy

Answer: inferior

Flashcard 147: Large "a" waves on JVP are seen in _____

Answer: tricuspid stenosis

Flashcard 148: What is the definitive mx of a patient with Stanford B dissection?_____

Answer: antihypertensive drugs

Flashcard 149: What is the rx of choice for stable wide QRS tachycardia, with hemodynamic instability?_____

Answer: DC cardioversion

Flashcard 150: Patients with complete AV block show _____ waves in the JVP due to contraction of the atria against the closed tricuspid valve.

Answer: cannon a 

Flashcard 151: Most common congenital heart disease affected by infective endocarditis is _____

Answer: VSD

Flashcard 152: Supraphysiologic stress such as pheochromocytoma can lead to the development of _____ cardiomyopathy

Answer: dilated

Flashcard 153: Prominent "x" and "y" descent on JVP are seen in _____

Answer: constrictive pericarditis

Flashcard 154: Which endocarditis has the most friable vegetations?_____

Answer: Infective endocarditis

Flashcard 155: _____ transmural infarcts are more likely to be complicated by conduction blocks, right ventricular involvement, or both.

Answer: Posterior (Anterior/Posterior)

Flashcard 156: The energy that must be applied in a monophasic defibrillator is _____J

Answer: 360

Flashcard 157: Systolic murmur grade _____ or more is included in NADA's major criteria

Answer: 3

Flashcard 158: _____ beats occur in v tach when ventricles are depolarized by the impulses from the SA node producing a QRS complex of normal duration

Answer: Capture

Flashcard 159: Overtime, patients of Fabry disease will develop _____ cardiomyopathy

Answer: restrictive

Flashcard 160: According to the American heart association and Europian cardiac society, high-risk cardiac lesions include:Valvulopathy developing after _____

Answer: cardiac transplantation

Flashcard 161: _____ transmural infarcts are involved in causing aneurysm as a post-MI complication.

Answer: Anterior (Anterior/Posterior)

Flashcard 162: According to the American heart association and Europian cardiac society, high-risk cardiac lesions include:Completely repaired congenital heart defects during the first _____ months after repair.

Answer: 6

Flashcard 163: Is Pansystolic murmur normal in pregnancy?_____

Answer: No

Flashcard 164: What will be the character of P2 in TOF and why?_____

Answer: low intensity and soft

Flashcard 165: The most common form of heart disease associated with HIV infection is _____

Answer: coronary heart disease.

Flashcard 166: Which supraventricular tachycardia will present with retrograde P-waves before a wide QRS complex (with delta wave)?_____

Answer: Antidromic AVRT

Flashcard 167: Triphasic QRS is seen in _____ tachycardias with the wide QRS complex.

Answer: supraventricular

Flashcard 168: Large "v" waves on JVP are seen in _____

Answer: tricuspid regurgitation

Flashcard 169: Pulsus _____ is seen in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

Answer: bisferiens

Flashcard 170: Vanishing pseudo tumour is seen in _____ as an interlobular effusion

Answer: Congestive heart failure

Flashcard 171: According to the American heart association and Europian cardiac society, high-risk cardiac lesions include:History of _____

Answer: endocarditis

Flashcard 172: _____ involvement is the leading cause of death from AL amyloidosis.

Answer: Cardiac

Flashcard 173: Anticoagulation therapy is started when CHA2DS2-VASc score is more than _____

Answer: 2

Flashcard 174: According to the 2020 update of CEAP classification, Secondary (postthrombotic syndrome, trauma) etiology is classified as _____

Answer: Es

Flashcard 175: Dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT) should be continued for at least _____ following stent placement to prevent stent thrombosis, with aspirin being continued _____.

Answer: 1 year; indefinitely

Flashcard 176: _____ murmur is an early diastolic murmur seen in PAH due to Pulmonary regurgitation

Answer: Graham Steell

Flashcard 177: The triggering foci for atrial fibrillation most commonly originate from the _____ tissue

Answer: left atrial

Flashcard 178: Electric cardioversion is _____effective in the management of Multifocal atrial tachycardia

Answer: in

Flashcard 179: In Inferior wall MI with hypotension, brisk administration of _____ is recommended to prevent cardiogenic shock

Answer: IV fluids

Flashcard 180: Patients with MVP but no history of prior endocarditis _____ require antibiotic prophylaxis before dental procedures.

Answer: do not

Flashcard 181: _____ wave is commonly seen in patients with arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC).

Answer: Epsilon

Flashcard 182: In a patient with systolic heart failure, _____ is an independent predictor of adverse outcome

Answer: hyponatremia

Flashcard 183: Troponin assay at 2-3 hours after symptom onset has an excellent _____ predictive value.

Answer: negative

Flashcard 184: Janeway lesions are due to a _____ phenomenon in infective endocarditis.

Answer: vascular

Flashcard 185: Multifocal atrial tachycardia is associted with _____ and shows different P wave morphologies

Answer: COPD

Flashcard 186: Post myocardial infarction ventricular septal rupture produces a _____ murmur which is loudest at tricuspid area.

Answer: pansystolic

Flashcard 187: Hypokalemia shows _____ of the ST segment, a _____ in the amplitude of the T wave, and an _____ in the amplitude of U waves.

Answer: depression; decrease/inversion; increase

Flashcard 188: Pseudo P pulmonale refers to tall peaked P waves seen in _____kalemia.

Answer: hypo

Flashcard 189: Carey Coombs murmur is a mid-diastolic murmur seen in _____

Answer: Mitral valvulitis

Flashcard 190: _____ and _____ are classified as C4a and C4c respectively under the clinical classification of CEAP classification.

Answer: Eczema; corona phlebectatica

Flashcard 191: If the patient has presented to a non-PCI-capable hospital, a fibrinolytic agent is given within 30 minutes of the patient presenting if the anticipated time to PCI is >_____ minutes

Answer: 120

Flashcard 192: The recommended treatment for WPW syndrome is _____ of accessory pathway

Answer: radiofrequency catheter ablation

Flashcard 193: What is the drug of choice for stable wide QRS tachycardia, without hemodynamic instability? _______

Answer: Amiodarone

Flashcard 194: Drug of choice for acute left ventricular failure: September 2006

Answer: Furosemide

Flashcard 195: Drug of choice for chronic heart failure -

Answer: ACE inhibitors