Drugs in Psychiatric Disorders

Drugs in Psychiatric Disorders Indian Medical PG Question 1: Which of the following neurotransmitters is NOT suspected to be involved in the pathophysiology of schizophrenia?

• A. Ascorbic acid (Correct Answer)
• B. Serotonin (5-HT)
• C. Norepinephrine
• D. Glutamate

Drugs in Psychiatric Disorders Explanation: ***Ascorbic acid*** - **Ascorbic acid (Vitamin C)** is an important antioxidant and cofactor, but it is **not a neurotransmitter**. - While it may have neuroprotective roles, there is **no significant theory** suggesting ascorbic acid dysregulation is involved in the core pathophysiology of schizophrenia. - Unlike the other options, ascorbic acid is not part of any major neurotransmitter hypothesis of schizophrenia. *Serotonin (5-HT)* - The **serotonin hypothesis** of schizophrenia suggests an imbalance in serotonergic activity, particularly involving **5-HT2A receptors**. - Serotonin is targeted by **atypical antipsychotics** (e.g., risperidone, olanzapine) which block 5-HT2A receptors. - Serotonin dysregulation is believed to contribute to both **positive and negative symptoms** of schizophrenia. *Norepinephrine* - Dysregulation of **norepinephrine** has been implicated in the **cognitive and negative symptoms** of schizophrenia. - Alterations in noradrenergic systems contribute to deficits in **attention, working memory, and motivation** in affected individuals. - The prefrontal cortex noradrenergic system is particularly relevant to schizophrenia pathophysiology. *Glutamate* - The **NMDA receptor hypofunction hypothesis** is a major theory in schizophrenia pathophysiology. - **Glutamate** dysfunction, particularly involving NMDA receptors, can explain positive, negative, and cognitive symptoms. - NMDA receptor antagonists (like PCP and ketamine) can **induce psychotic symptoms** similar to schizophrenia, supporting this hypothesis.

Drugs in Psychiatric Disorders Indian Medical PG Question 2: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

• A. A→1 B→2 C→4 D→3
• B. A→3 B→2 C→4 D→1
• C. A→3 B→4 C→2 D→1 (Correct Answer)
• D. A→1 B→4 C→2 D→3

Drugs in Psychiatric Disorders Explanation: ***Correct Answer: A→3, B→4, C→2, D→1*** **Understanding Health Education Methods:** **A. Symposium → 3. Series of speeches** - A symposium is a formal meeting where multiple experts deliver **sequential speeches** on different aspects of a selected subject - Each speaker presents their perspective, typically without much interaction between speakers during the presentation **B. Panel Discussion → 4. Discussion among the speakers** - A panel involves **interactive discussion among panelists** (experts) on a particular topic - Characterized by dialogue and exchange of views between speakers, often followed by audience questions **C. Workshop → 2. Arriving at a plan of action** - A workshop is a **participatory, problem-solving session** designed to achieve practical outcomes - Participants actively engage in exercises and activities to develop concrete action plans or solutions **D. Role-play → 1. Dramatizing a situation** - Role-play involves **acting out scenarios** to experience different perspectives - Participants assume roles and dramatize situations to understand behaviors, emotions, and decision-making processes *Key Differentiation:* - Symposium = One-way presentations (speakers → audience) - Panel = Two-way discussion (speakers ↔ speakers) - Workshop = Participatory action planning - Role-play = Experiential learning through dramatization

Drugs in Psychiatric Disorders Indian Medical PG Question 3: Maximum increase in prolactin level is caused by:-

• A. Olanzapine (Primarily blocks 5HT2 receptors)
• B. Aripiprazole (D2 partial agonist)
• C. Risperidone (Potent D2 receptor antagonist) (Correct Answer)
• D. Clozapine (Primarily blocks 5HT2 receptors)

Drugs in Psychiatric Disorders Explanation: ***Risperidone (Potent D2 receptor antagonist)*** - Risperidone is a **potent D2 receptor antagonist**, meaning it blocks dopamine's action at these receptors. Since dopamine inhibits prolactin release, blocking D2 receptors leads to a significant increase in **prolactin levels**. - Its high affinity for D2 receptors in the **tuberoinfundibular pathway** is a primary reason for its pronounced effect on prolactin. *Olanzapine (Primarily blocks 5HT2 receptors)* - While olanzapine can cause some prolactin elevation, its primary mechanism involves **5HT2 receptor blockade**, with less potent D2 antagonism compared to risperidone. - The degree of **hyperprolactinemia** associated with olanzapine is generally milder than that seen with risperidone. *Aripiprazole (D2 partial agonist)* - Aripiprazole is a **D2 partial agonist**, meaning it acts as an antagonist when dopamine levels are high and an agonist when dopamine levels are low, effectively stabilizing dopamine activity. - Due to its partial agonism, aripiprazole typically has a **low risk of hyperprolactinemia** and can even normalize elevated prolactin levels caused by other antipsychotics. *Clozapine (Primarily blocks 5HT2 receptors)* - Clozapine primarily blocks **5HT2 receptors** and has relatively weak D2 receptor antagonism, especially transient D2 blockade. - It generally causes **minimal to no prolactin elevation** and is considered a prolactin-sparing antipsychotic.

Drugs in Psychiatric Disorders Indian Medical PG Question 4: Management of a violent patient in psychiatry includes all except:

• A. CBT (Correct Answer)
• B. Haloperidol
• C. ECT
• D. BZD

Drugs in Psychiatric Disorders Explanation: ***CBT*** - **Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)** is a long-term psychological intervention aimed at changing maladaptive thought patterns and behaviors. It is **not suitable for immediate management** of an acutely violent patient. - While CBT can be beneficial for aggression management in a stable patient, it requires patient cooperation, cognitive engagement, and time, which are not available during a **violent psychiatric emergency**. *Haloperidol* - **Haloperidol** is a potent typical antipsychotic frequently used in acute settings for rapid tranquilization of violent or severely agitated patients. - It is effective in reducing **psychosis-related agitation** and can be administered **intramuscularly** for quick onset of action. - Often used in combination with benzodiazepines for optimal control of acute violence. *ECT* - **Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)** may be considered in **severe, treatment-resistant cases** of violence associated with conditions like uncontrolled mania, catatonic excitement, or psychotic depression when pharmacological interventions have failed. - While not used for immediate acute management due to logistical requirements (consent, anesthesia, specialized setup), it can be an effective option for severe psychiatric conditions with persistent violence. - It works by inducing a brief controlled seizure, which can rapidly alleviate severe symptoms. *BZD* - **Benzodiazepines (BZDs)** like lorazepam or diazepam are **first-line agents** in the acute management of violent or agitated patients due to their rapid anxiolytic, sedative, and muscle relaxant properties. - They are particularly useful for **calming acute agitation** and are often combined with antipsychotics for rapid tranquilization. - Can be administered intramuscularly or intravenously for quick action in psychiatric emergencies.

Drugs in Psychiatric Disorders Indian Medical PG Question 5: Which drug is not considered a mood stabilizer?

• A. Lithium
• B. Lamotrigine
• C. Imipramine (Correct Answer)
• D. Carbamazepine

Drugs in Psychiatric Disorders Explanation: ***Imipramine*** - Imipramine is a **tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)**, primarily used to treat depression, not to stabilize mood in bipolar disorder. - TCAs can sometimes induce **mania** or hypomania in individuals with bipolar disorder, thus they are generally not used as monotherapy for mood stabilization. *Lithium* - **Lithium** is considered the gold standard and one of the oldest and most effective **mood stabilizers** for bipolar disorder. - It works by modulating **neurotransmitter systems** and second messenger pathways in the brain. *Lamotrigine* - **Lamotrigine** is an **anticonvulsant** medication that is also recognized as an effective **mood stabilizer**, particularly for preventing depressive episodes in bipolar disorder. - Its mechanism involves stabilizing neuronal membranes by blocking **voltage-gated sodium channels**. *Carbamazepine* - **Carbamazepine** is an **anticonvulsant** medication often used as a **mood stabilizer** for the treatment of acute manic and mixed episodes in bipolar disorder. - It works by reducing the excitability of nerve impulses through blocking **voltage-sensitive sodium channels**.

Drugs in Psychiatric Disorders Flashcard 1 of 5

Question: _____ is a D2 and D3 receptor antagonist used as an antiemetic and antipsychotic.

Answer: Amisulpride

Drugs in Psychiatric Disorders Flashcard 2 of 5

Question: Atypical antipsychotics may cause metabolic syndrome, which is characterized by _____, dyslipidemia, and hyperglycemia

Answer: weight gain

Drugs in Psychiatric Disorders Flashcard 3 of 5

Question: Neuro/Psych _____ are a class of antidepressants that can cause QT interval prolongation, which precipitates torsades de pointes

Answer: TCAs

Drugs in Psychiatric Disorders Flashcard 4 of 5

Question: Main mechanism of antidepressant action is to change the neurotransmitter _____

Answer: receptor sensitivity

Drugs in Psychiatric Disorders Flashcard 5 of 5

Question: What is the most common long term side effect of SSRIs?_____

Answer: Sexual dysfunction