Consultative and Perioperative Medicine

Consultative and Perioperative Medicine Indian Medical PG Question 1: A 63-year-old man presents for an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy. He is obese, has angina at rest, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following would be his American society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) physical status classification

• A. ASA II
• B. ASA I
• C. ASA IV
• D. ASA III (Correct Answer)

Consultative and Perioperative Medicine Explanation: ***ASA III*** - This patient has **severe systemic disease** (angina at rest, COPD, obesity) that limits activity but is not incapacitating, aligning with the criteria for **ASA III**. - **Angina at rest** and **chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)** are significant comorbidities that place the patient in this category. *ASA II* - **ASA II** is defined by **mild systemic disease** that does not limit activity. - The patient's conditions such as **angina at rest** and **COPD** are more severe than what would be considered mild. *ASA I* - **ASA I** is reserved for a **normal, healthy patient** with no systemic disease. - This patient has multiple significant systemic diseases, unequivocally ruling out ASA I. *ASA IV* - **ASA IV** describes a patient with **severe systemic disease** that is a constant threat to life. - While critical, the patient's conditions (angina at rest, COPD) are stabilised enough for an **elective procedure** and are not an immediate, constant threat to life.

Consultative and Perioperative Medicine Indian Medical PG Question 2: A postoperative patient with pH 7.25, MAP (mean arterial pressure) 60 mm Hg is treated with?

• A. Only normal saline
• B. fluid restriction
• C. Fluid therapy with CVP monitoring (Correct Answer)
• D. I.V. sodium bicarbonate

Consultative and Perioperative Medicine Explanation: ***Fluid therapy with CVP monitoring*** - The patient's **MAP of 60 mmHg** indicates **hypotension** and potential **hypovolemic shock**, while pH 7.25 suggests **acidosis**, which could be metabolic due to poor perfusion. Initial treatment should focus on **restoring circulating volume** to improve blood pressure and organ perfusion. - **Central venous pressure (CVP) monitoring** is crucial to guide fluid resuscitation. It helps assess the patient's fluid status and ensures that enough fluid is given to improve cardiac output without causing fluid overload, especially in a severely ill patient. *Only normal saline* - While normal saline is used for fluid resuscitation, simply stating "only normal saline" is insufficient because it doesn't address the **critical need for monitoring** to guide treatment. - The amount and rate of fluid administration need to be carefully controlled based on the patient's response and hemodynamic parameters. *Fluid restriction* - **Fluid restriction** would be contraindicated in this patient because the **low MAP** suggests **hypovolemia or cardiogenic shock**, requiring fluid repletion, not restriction. - Restricting fluids could further worsen hypotension and organ hypoperfusion, leading to increased acidosis and organ damage. *I.V. sodium bicarbonate* - Administering **I.V. sodium bicarbonate** to correct acidosis without addressing the underlying cause of hypotension and poor perfusion is generally not recommended. - The acidosis (pH 7.25) is likely due to **poor tissue oxygenation and lactic acid production** from inadequate blood flow; correcting this with fluids will resolve the acidosis.

Consultative and Perioperative Medicine Indian Medical PG Question 3: Which of the following are stages of damage control surgery? 1. Patient selection 2. Control of haemorrhage 3. Resuscitation in ICU 4. Preventive surgery Select the correct answer using the code given below.

• A. 1, 3 and 4
• B. 1, 2 and 4
• C. 2, 3 and 4
• D. 1, 2 and 3 (Correct Answer)

Consultative and Perioperative Medicine Explanation: ***1, 2 and 3*** - **Damage control surgery** (DCS) is a multi-stage approach for critically injured patients, involving initial stabilization, followed by definitive repair. - The stages include **patient selection** (for those who would benefit), **initial hemorrhage and contamination control**, and subsequent **resuscitation in the ICU** before a final operation. *1, 3 and 4* - This option incorrectly includes **preventive surgery** as a stage of damage control surgery. - While patient selection and ICU resuscitation are crucial, preventive surgery is not a distinct stage within the standard damage control protocol, which focuses on immediate life-saving measures and delayed definitive repair. *1, 2 and 4* - This option incorrectly includes **preventive surgery** and omits **resuscitation in the ICU**, which is a critical phase of damage control. - After initial surgical control of bleeding and contamination, the patient undergoes aggressive resuscitation and optimization in the ICU before the next surgical stage. *2, 3 and 4* - This option omits **patient selection**, which is the crucial first step in determining who is a candidate for damage control surgery. - It also incorrectly includes **preventive surgery**, as outlined previously.

Consultative and Perioperative Medicine Indian Medical PG Question 4: Good surgical practice and surgical ethics include all EXCEPT:

• A. Confidentiality
• B. Experiment without consent (Correct Answer)
• C. Informed consent
• D. Respect autonomy

Consultative and Perioperative Medicine Explanation: ***Experiment without consent*** - Performing an experiment or research procedure on a patient **without proper informed consent** is a direct violation of medical ethics and good surgical practice. - Even well-designed clinical research requires **explicit patient consent**, **ethics committee approval**, and adherence to principles of *non-maleficence* and *beneficence*. - Conducting any experimental procedure without consent violates patient autonomy and the fundamental ethical principle of **informed consent**. *Confidentiality* - **Confidentiality** is a cornerstone of patient care, ensuring that patient information is protected and disclosed only with proper consent or legal requirement. - Maintaining confidentiality is an essential component of good surgical practice and medical ethics. *Informed consent* - **Informed consent** is a fundamental ethical and legal requirement before any medical procedure, ensuring the patient understands the *risks, benefits, alternatives*, and prognosis. - It upholds the principle of *patient autonomy*, allowing individuals to make decisions about their own healthcare. *Respect autonomy* - **Respect for autonomy** means acknowledging and upholding a patient's right to *make their own decisions* about their medical care, free from coercion. - This principle guides processes like obtaining informed consent and respecting a patient's choices, even if they differ from the medical professional's recommendation, as long as the patient is competent.

Consultative and Perioperative Medicine Indian Medical PG Question 5: What is the primary effect of beta blockers in the management of thyroid storm?

• A. Increases metabolism of thyroxine
• B. Blocks thyroxine receptors
• C. Decreases synthesis of thyroxine
• D. Provides rapid relief of symptoms (Correct Answer)

Consultative and Perioperative Medicine Explanation: Detailed management of thyrotoxic crisis (thyroid storm) is a medical emergency where patients should be given propranolol, either oral or intravenous, to manage life-threatening symptoms [1]. ***Provides rapid relief of symptoms*** - Beta blockers primarily address the **adrenergic manifestations** of thyroid storm, such as **tachycardia**, **tremors**, anxiety, and palpitations [1]. - By blocking **beta-adrenergic receptors**, they provide rapid symptomatic relief and reduce cardiovascular stress, without affecting hormone levels [2]. Thyroid hormones normally increase the expression of genes for beta-adrenergic receptors and G-proteins, leading to increased heart rate and force of contraction [2]. *Increases metabolism of thyroxine* - Beta blockers do not increase the **metabolism** or breakdown of thyroxine; their action is primarily on the **peripheral effects** of thyroid hormones. - While some beta blockers like **propranolol** can inhibit the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3, this is a secondary effect and not their primary role in providing rapid symptomatic relief [1]. *Blocks thyroxine receptors* - Beta blockers do not block **thyroxine receptors**; thyroid hormones exert their effects by binding to intracellular receptors, not adrenergic receptors [2]. - Their action is on the **adrenergic system**, which is overstimulated by the high levels of thyroid hormones. *Decreases synthesis of thyroxine* - Beta blockers do not directly decrease the **synthesis of thyroxine** by the thyroid gland. - That action is performed by **antithyroid drugs** like methimazole and propylthiouracil, which inhibit hormone production [1].

Consultative and Perioperative Medicine Flashcard 1 of 5

Question: Patients with hypertension and what comorbidity should replace ACE inhibitors with ARBs and nonselective betablockers with cardioselective beta blockers? _____

Answer: Obstructive Lung Disease

Consultative and Perioperative Medicine Flashcard 2 of 5

Question: Patients with a previous history of myocardial infarction, prosthetic heart valve replacement, or recent stenting on warfarin should be switched to _____ 7 days before surgery

Answer: LMWH

Consultative and Perioperative Medicine Flashcard 3 of 5

Question: Atheroembolism following an invasive vascular procedure is will present with signs such as _____ and livedo reticularis with normal peripheral pulses

Answer: blue toe

Consultative and Perioperative Medicine Flashcard 4 of 5

Question: Which test provides the most accurate prognostic information with respect to predicting risks of perioperative cardiac complications?_____

Answer: Dobutamine stress echocardiography

Consultative and Perioperative Medicine Flashcard 5 of 5

Question: Alcoholic patients with cirrhosis require a _____ month abstinence before being considered for liver transplant

Answer: 6