A 22-year-old man presents to the emergency department after being tackled in a game of football. The patient was hit from behind and fell to the ground. After the event, he complained of severe pain in his knee. The patient has a past medical history of anabolic steroid use. His current medications include whey protein supplements, multivitamins, and fish oil. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 137/68 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. On physical exam, you see a muscular young man clutching his knee in pain. The knee is inflamed and erythematous. When valgus stress is applied to the leg, there is some laxity when compared to the contralateral leg. The patient is requesting surgery for his injury. Arthrocentesis is performed and demonstrates no abnormalities of the synovial fluid. Which of the following physical exam findings is most likely to be seen in this patient?
AAnterior displacement of the femur relative to the tibia
BSevere pain with compression of the patella
CAnterior displacement of the tibia relative to the femur
DA palpable click with passive motion of the knee
ELaxity to varus stress
A 27-year-old soldier stationed in Libya sustains a shrapnel injury during an attack, causing a traumatic above-elbow amputation. The resulting arterial bleed is managed with a tourniquet prior to transport to the military treatment facility. On arrival, he is alert and oriented to person, place, and time. His armor and clothing are removed. His pulse is 145/min, respirations are 28/min, and blood pressure is 95/52 mm Hg. Pulmonary examination shows symmetric chest rise. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Abdominal examination shows no abnormalities. There are multiple shrapnel wounds over the upper and lower extremities. A tourniquet is in place around the right upper extremity; the right proximal forearm has been amputated. One large-bore intravenous catheter is placed in the left antecubital fossa. Despite multiple attempts, medical staff is unable to establish additional intravenous access. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
AIrrigate the shrapnel wounds
BPerform endotracheal intubation
CEstablish intraosseous access
DEstablish central venous access
EReplace the tourniquet with a pressure dressing
A 25-year-old man comes to the physician for severe back pain. He describes the pain as shooting and stabbing. On a 10-point scale, he rates the pain as a 9 to 10. The pain started after he lifted a heavy box at work; he works at a supermarket and recently switched from being a cashier to a storekeeper. The patient appears to be in severe distress. Vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, the spine is nontender without paravertebral muscle spasms. Range of motion is normal. A straight-leg raise test is negative. After the physical examination has been completed, the patient asks for a letter to his employer attesting to his inability to work as a storekeeper. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
A“Yes. Since work may worsen your condition, I would prefer that you stay home a few days. I will write a letter to your employer to explain the situation.”
BYou say you are in severe pain. However, the physical examination findings do not suggest a physical problem that can be addressed with medications or surgery. I'd like to meet on a regular basis to see how you're doing.
CI understand that you are uncomfortable, but the findings do not match the severity of your symptoms. Let's talk about the recent changes at your job.
DThe physical exam findings do not match your symptoms, which suggests a psychological problem. I would be happy to refer you to a mental health professional.
EThe physical exam findings suggest a psychological rather than a physical problem. But there is a good chance that we can address it with cognitive-behavioral therapy.
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