Ovarian torsion managementDownloads

A 17-year-old girl presents to her pediatrician for a wellness visit. She currently feels well but is concerned that she has not experienced menarche. She reports to recently developing headaches and describes them as pulsating, occurring on the left side of her head, associated with nausea, and relieved by ibuprofen. She is part of the school’s rugby team and competitively lifts weights. She is currently sexually active and uses condoms infrequently. She denies using any forms of contraception or taking any medications. Her temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 137/90 mmHg, pulse is 98/min, and respirations are 17/min. On physical exam, she has normal breast development and pubic hair is present. A pelvic exam is performed. A urine hCG test is negative. Which of the following is the best next step in management?

A 26-year-old woman presents to her gynecologist with complaints of pain with her menses and during intercourse. She also complains of chest pain that occurs whenever she has her menstrual period. The patient has a past medical history of bipolar disorder and borderline personality disorder. Her current medications include lithium and haloperidol. Review of systems is notable only for pain when she has a bowel movement relieved by defecation. Her temperature is 98.2°F (36.8°C), blood pressure is 114/74 mmHg, pulse is 70/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Pelvic exam is notable for a tender adnexal mass. The patient's uterus is soft, boggy, and tender. Which of the following is the most appropriate method of confirming the diagnosis in this patient?