A 70-year-old man comes to the physician for the evaluation of pain, cramps, and tingling in his lower extremities over the past 6 months. The patient reports that the symptoms worsen with walking more than two blocks and are completely relieved by rest. Over the past 3 months, his symptoms have not improved despite his participating in supervised exercise therapy. He has type 2 diabetes mellitus. He had smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the past 50 years, but quit 3 months ago. He does not drink alcohol. His current medications include metformin, atorvastatin, and aspirin. Examination shows loss of hair and decreased skin temperature in the lower legs. Femoral pulses are palpable; pedal pulses are absent. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
ACompression stockings
BEndarterectomy
CBypass surgery
DPercutaneous transluminal angioplasty
EAdministration of cilostazol
A 67-year-old man comes to the office due to pain in the lower part of his calves on his afternoon walk to get the mail. The pain is relieved by rest. It started slowly about 6 months ago and has become more painful over time. He has a history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, diabetes mellitus, and a 20-pack-year smoking history. Medications include hydrochlorothiazide, atorvastatin, metformin, and a multivitamin that he takes daily. The patient quit smoking 2 years ago and only drinks socially. Today, his blood pressure is 145/90 mm Hg, pulse is 75/min, respiratory rate is 17/min, and temperature is 37.6°C (99.6°F). On physical exam, he appears mildly obese and healthy. His heart has a regular rate and rhythm, and his lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Examination of the legs shows atrophic changes and diminished pedal pulses. A measure of his ankle brachial index (ABI) is 0.89. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?
AA recommendation to walk more
BMetoprolol
CA recommendation to perform pedal pumping exercises
DA referral to a supervised exercise program
EEnoxaparin
A 53-year-old Asian woman comes to the physician because of a 2-month history of severe pain in her right leg while walking. She used to be able to walk a half-mile (800-m) to the grocery store but has been unable to walk 200 meters without stopping because of the pain over the past month. She can continue to walk after a break of around 5 minutes. She has hypertension, atrial fibrillation, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the past 32 years. Current medications include metformin, enalapril, aspirin, and warfarin. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows an irregularly irregular pulse. The right lower extremity is cooler than the left lower extremity. The skin over the right leg appears shiny and dry. Femoral pulses are palpated bilaterally; pedal pulses are diminished on the right side. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
AMRI spine screening
BDuplex ultrasonography
CAnkle-brachial index
DNerve conduction studies
EBiopsy of tibial artery
+ 7 more in the PDF
Browse all chapters