Non-operative management principlesDownloads

A 62-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute pain in the left lower abdomen and profuse rectal bleeding. These symptoms started 3 hours ago. The patient has chronic constipation and bloating, for which he takes lactulose. His family history is negative for gastrointestinal disorders. His temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F), blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg, and pulse is 110/min. On physical examination, the patient appears drowsy, and there is tenderness with guarding in the left lower abdominal quadrant. Flexible sigmoidoscopy shows multiple, scattered diverticula with acute mucosal inflammation in the sigmoid colon. Which of the following is the best initial treatment for this patient?

A 76-year-old female is brought to the emergency department after being found unresponsive in her room at her nursing facility. Past medical history is significant for Alzheimer's disease, hypertension, and diabetes. Surgical history is notable for an open cholecystectomy at age 38 and multiple cesarean sections. On arrival, she is non-responsive but breathing by herself, and her vital signs are T 102.9 F, HR 123 bpm, BP 95/64, RR 26/min, and SaO2 97% on 6L nasal cannula. On physical exam the patient has marked abdominal distension and is tympanic to percussion. Laboratory studies are notable for a lactic acidosis. An upright abdominal radiograph and CT abdomen/pelvis with contrast are shown in Figures A and B respectively. She is started on IV fluids and a nasogastric tube is placed to suction which returns green bilious fluid. Repeat vitals 1 hour later are T 101F, HR 140 bpm, BP 75/44, RR 30/min, and SaO2 is 100% on the ventilator after she is intubated for airway concerns. What is the next best step in management?