A neonate born at 33 weeks is transferred to the NICU after a complicated pregnancy and C-section. A week after being admitted, he developed a fever and became lethargic and minimally responsive to stimuli. A lumbar puncture is performed that reveals the following: Appearance Cloudy Protein 64 mg/dL Glucose 22 mg/dL Pressure 330 mm H20 Cells 295 cells/mm³ (> 90% PMN) A specimen is sent to microbiology and reveals gram-negative rods. Which of the following is the next appropriate step in management?
AMRI scan of the head
BStart the patient on IV ceftriaxone
CProvide supportive measures only
DStart the patient on IV cefotaxime
EStart the patient on oral rifampin
A 70-year-old man presents with fever, headache, and vomiting. He says that symptoms onset acutely 2 days ago and have not improved. He also reports associated weakness and chills. Past medical history is significant for occasional heartburn. His temperature is 39.4°C (103.0°F), the pulse rate is 124/min, the blood pressure is 130/84 mm Hg, and the respiratory rate is 22/min. On physical examination, there is significant nuchal rigidity. No signs of raised intracranial pressure are present. A lumbar puncture is performed and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis shows lymphocyte-dominant pleocytosis with increased CSF protein levels. Bacteriological culture of the CSF reveals the growth of Listeria monocytogenes. Which of the following antibiotics is the best choice for the treatment of this patient?
AAmpicillin
BCeftriaxone
CCiprofloxacin
DChloramphenicol
EVancomycin
A 72-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with productive cough and fever. A chest radiograph is obtained and shows lobar consolidation. The patient is diagnosed with pneumonia. He has a history of penicillin allergy. The attending physician orders IV levofloxacin as empiric therapy. On morning rounds the next day, the team discovers that the patient was administered ceftriaxone instead of levofloxacin. The patient has already received a full dose of ceftriaxone and had no signs of allergic reaction, and his pneumonia appears to be improving clinically. What is the most appropriate next step?
AAdminister diphenhydramine as prophylaxis against allergic reaction
BContinue with ceftriaxone as empiric therapy
CSwitch the patient to oral azithromycin in preparation for discharge and home therapy
DSwitch the patient back to levofloxacin and discuss the error with the patient
EContinue with ceftriaxone and add azithromycin as inpatient empiric pneumonia therapy
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