A 25-year-old G1P0000 presents to her obstetrician’s office for her first prenatal visit. She had a positive pregnancy test 6 weeks ago, and her last period was about two months ago, though at baseline her periods are irregular. Aside from some slight nausea in the mornings, she feels well. Which of the following measurements would provide the most accurate dating of this patient’s pregnancy?
ACrown-rump length
BFemur length
CAbdominal circumference
DBiparietal diameter
ESerum beta-hCG
A 40-year-old woman in her 18th week of pregnancy based on the last menstrual period (LMP) presents to her obstetrician for an antenatal check-up. The antenatal testing is normal, except the quadruple screen results which are given below: Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MS-AFP) low Unconjugated estriol low Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) high Inhibin-A high Which of the following conditions is the most likely the cause of the abnormal quadruple screen?
AFetal alcohol syndrome
BSpina bifida
CGastroschisis
DTrisomy 21
EOmphalocele
A 27-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 37 weeks' gestation is admitted to the hospital in active labor. She has received routine prenatal care, but she has not been tested for group B streptococcal (GBS) colonization. Pregnancy and delivery of her first child were complicated by an infection with GBS that resulted in sepsis in the newborn. Current medications include folic acid and a multivitamin. Vital signs are within normal limits. The abdomen is nontender and contractions are felt every 4 minutes. There is clear amniotic fluid pooling in the vagina. The fetus is in a cephalic presentation. The fetal heart rate is 140/min. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
AObtain vaginal-rectal swab for nucleic acid amplification testing
BObtain vaginal-rectal swab for GBS culture
CAdminister intrapartum intravenous penicillin
DReassurance
EObtain vaginal-rectal swab for GBS culture and nucleic acid amplification testing
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