A 29-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, at 33 weeks' gestation comes to her doctor for a routine visit. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. She has systemic lupus erythematosus and has had no flares during her pregnancy. She does not smoke cigarettes, drink alcohol, or use illicit drugs. Current medications include iron, vitamin supplements, and hydroxychloroquine. Her temperature is 37.2°C (98.9°F), pulse is 70/min, respirations are 17/min, and blood pressure is 134/70 mm Hg. She appears well. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Ultrasound demonstrates fetal rhythmic breathing for > 30 seconds, amniotic fluid with deepest vertical pocket of 1 cm, one distinct fetal body movement over 30 minutes, and no episodes of extremity extension over 30 minutes. Nonstress test is reactive and reassuring. Which of the following is the next best step in management?
AAdminister corticosteroids and continue close monitoring
BPerform cesarean delivery
CDiscontinue hydroxychloroquine and continue close monitoring
DInduction of labor
EReassurance with expectant management
A 36-year-old primigravid woman at 26 weeks' gestation comes to the physician complaining of absent fetal movements for the last 2 days. Pregnancy was confirmed by ultrasonography 14 weeks earlier. She has no vaginal bleeding or discharge. She has a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus controlled with insulin. Vital signs are all within the normal limits. Pelvic examination shows a soft, 2-cm long cervix in the midline with a cervical os measuring 3 cm and a uterus consistent in size with 24 weeks' gestation. Transvaginal ultrasonography shows a fetus with no cardiac activity. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
APlan for oxytocin administration
BPerform weekly pelvic ultrasound
CPerform dilation and curettage
DPerform cesarean delivery
EAdminister magnesium sulfate
A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 38 weeks' gestation comes to the emergency department because of vaginal bleeding for the past hour. The patient reports that she felt contractions prior to the onset of the bleeding, but the contractions stopped after the bleeding started. She also has severe abdominal pain. Her first child was delivered by lower segment transverse cesarean section because of a nonreassuring fetal heart rate. Her pulse is 110/min, respirations are 17/min, and blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg. Examination shows diffuse abdominal tenderness with no rebound or guarding; no contractions are felt. The fetal heart rate shows recurrent variable decelerations. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
AUterine inertia
BAmniotic fluid embolism
CUterine rupture
DVasa previa
EAbruptio placentae
+ 7 more in the PDF
Browse all chapters