A 37-year-old G4P3 presents to her physician at 20 weeks gestation for routine prenatal care. Currently, she has no complaints; however, in the first trimester she was hospitalized due to acute pyelonephritis and was treated with cefuroxime. All her past pregnancies required cesarean deliveries for medical indications. Her history is also significant for amenorrhea after weight loss at 19 years of age and a cervical polypectomy at 30 years of age. Today, her vital signs are within normal limits and a physical examination is unremarkable. A transabdominal ultrasound shows a normally developing male fetus without morphologic abnormalities, anterior placement of the placenta in the lower uterine segment, loss of the retroplacental hypoechoic zone, and visible lacunae within the myometrium. Which of the following factors present in this patient is a risk factor for the condition she has developed?
AA history of amenorrhea
BGenitourinary infections during pregnancy
CMultiple cesarean deliveries
DIntake of antibiotics in the first trimester
ECervical surgery
A 27-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 41 weeks' gestation is admitted to the hospital in active labor. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. Both of her prior children were delivered by vaginal birth. She has a history of asthma. Current medications include iron and vitamin supplements. After a prolonged labor, she undergoes vaginal delivery. Shortly afterwards, she begins to have heavy vaginal bleeding with clots. Her temperature is 37.2°C (98.9°F), pulse is 90/min, respirations are 17/min, and blood pressure is 130/72 mm Hg. Examination shows a soft, enlarged, and boggy uterus on palpation. Laboratory studies show: Hemoglobin 10.8 g/dL Hematocrit 32.3% Leukocyte Count 9,000/mm3 Platelet Count 140,000/mm3 Prothrombin time 14 seconds Partial thromboplastin time 38 seconds Her bleeding continues despite bimanual uterine massage and administration of oxytocin. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
AAdminister methylergonovine
BTransfuse blood
CPerform hysterectomy
DAdminister carboprost tromethamine
EPerform curettage
Immediately following prolonged delivery of the placenta at 40 weeks gestation, a 32-year-old multiparous woman develops vaginal bleeding. Other than mild asthma, the patient’s pregnancy has been uncomplicated. She has attended many prenatal appointments and followed the physician's advice about screening for diseases, laboratory testing, diet, and exercise. Previous pregnancies were uncomplicated. She has no history of a serious illness. She is currently on intravenous infusion of oxytocin. Her temperature is 37.2°C (99.0°F), blood pressure is 108/60 mm Hg, pulse is 88/min, and respirations are 17/min. Uterine palpation reveals a soft enlarged fundus that extends above the umbilicus. Based on the assessment of the birth canal and placenta, which of the following options is the most appropriate initial step in patient management?
AIntramuscular carboprost
BManual exploration of the uterus
CDiscontinuing oxytocin
DIntravenous methylergonovine
EUterine fundal massage
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