Chapter·OB/GYNLabor Complications

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1

A 34-year-old pregnant woman with unknown medical history is admitted to the hospital at her 36th week of gestation with painful contractions. She received no proper prenatal care during the current pregnancy. On presentation, her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg, heart rate is 102/min, respiratory rate is 23/min, and temperature is 37.0℃ (98.6℉). Fetal heart rate is 179/min. Pelvic examination shows a closed non-effaced cervix. During the examination, the patient experiences a strong contraction accompanied by a high-intensity pain after which contractions disappear. The fetal heart rate becomes 85/min and continues to decrease. The fetal head is now floating. Which of the following factors would most likely be present in the patient’s history?

AFundal cesarean delivery

BAdenomyosis

CIntrauterine synechiae

DMultiple vaginal births

EPostabortion metroendometritis

2

A 27-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 37 weeks' gestation is admitted to the hospital in active labor. She has received routine prenatal care, but she has not been tested for group B streptococcal (GBS) colonization. Pregnancy and delivery of her first child were complicated by an infection with GBS that resulted in sepsis in the newborn. Current medications include folic acid and a multivitamin. Vital signs are within normal limits. The abdomen is nontender and contractions are felt every 4 minutes. There is clear amniotic fluid pooling in the vagina. The fetus is in a cephalic presentation. The fetal heart rate is 140/min. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

AObtain vaginal-rectal swab for nucleic acid amplification testing

BObtain vaginal-rectal swab for GBS culture

CAdminister intrapartum intravenous penicillin

DReassurance

EObtain vaginal-rectal swab for GBS culture and nucleic acid amplification testing

3

A 25-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 25 weeks' gestation comes to the emergency department because of a 1-day history of fever and right-sided flank pain. During this period, she also had chills, nausea, vomiting, and burning on urination. Her last prenatal visit was 10 weeks ago. Pregnancy and delivery of her first child were uncomplicated. Her temperature is 39°C (102.2°F), pulse is 110/min, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. Physical examination shows costovertebral angle tenderness on the right. The abdomen is soft and nontender, and no contractions are felt. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 25-week gestation. Fetal heart rate is 170/min. Laboratory studies show: Leukocyte count 15,000/mm3 Urine Nitrite 2+ Protein 1+ Blood 1+ RBC 5/hpf WBC 500/hpf Blood and urine samples are obtained for culture and drug sensitivity. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

AInpatient treatment with intravenous ceftriaxone

BPerform a renal ultrasound

COutpatient treatment with oral ciprofloxacin

DInpatient treatment with intravenous ampicillin and gentamicin

EAdmit the patient and request an emergent obstetrical consult

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