A 56-year-old woman makes an appointment with her physician to discuss the results of her cervical cancer screening. She has been menopausal for 2 years and does not take hormone replacement therapy. Her previous Pap smear showed low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL); no HPV testing was performed. Her gynecologic examination is unremarkable. The results of her current Pap smear is as follows: Specimen adequacy satisfactory for evaluation Interpretation low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion Notes atrophic pattern Which option is the next best step in the management of this patient?
AReflex HPV testing
BColposcopy
CRepeat HPV testing in 6 months
DImmediate loop excision
EIntravaginal estrogen therapy followed by repeat Pap smear in 1 week
Researchers are investigating a new strain of a virus that has been infecting children over the past season and causing dermatitis. They have isolated the virus and have run a number of tests to determine its structure and characteristics. They have found that this new virus has an outer coating that is high in phospholipids. Protein targeting assays and immunofluorescence images have shown that the outer layer contains numerous surface proteins. On microscopy, these surface proteins are also expressed around the nucleus of cells derived from the infected tissue of the children. This virus’s structure most closely resembles which of the following?
AAdenovirus
BPapillomavirus
CHerpesvirus
DPoxvirus
EHepadnavirus
A 31-year-old female presents to her gynecologist for a routine Pap smear. Her last Pap smear was three years ago and was normal. On the current Pap smear, she is found to have atypical squamous cells of unknown significance (ASCUS). Reflex HPV testing is positive. What is the best next step?
AColposcopy
BRepeat Pap smear and HPV testing in 5 years
CRepeat Pap smear in 3 years
DRepeat Pap smear in 1 year
ELoop electrosurgical excision procedure (LEEP)
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